BigV
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- Dec 27, 2007
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Yes, that could be confusing until one reads all of his epistles carefully. Paul means that by the standards of the Pharisees, in their overly legalistic superficial way of seeing the law, as just a bunch of rules (not a sense of goodness or true justice, but instead judgemental micro rules) -- righteousness in the eyes of some men -- that by that Pharisee standard Paul was laudable, proud.
Paul recognizes that isn't the true real righteousness, that kind of legalistic Pharisee version. That by true righteousness, such as for instance in Matthew 7:12, the real spirit of the law, the real ultimate intent, that by the higher, truer standard, he fell short (and not by just a little!) -- "all have fallen short".
the law is by definition legalistic. Christ obviously ignore the law. Most clearly he ignored dietary laws declaring all foods clean in Marks gospel.
So by what standard was Christ holy? By his own standard or by law? You know what, by my own standard I’m holy too.
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