Only God is good, what does Jesus mean in Mark 10?

drjean said:

Indeed I did.
Using rhetoric does not imply non-truth.

21 Rhetorical Devices Explained
BY Paul Anthony Jones
November 11, 2016


Rhetoric is often defined as “the art of language.” That might sound like a bit of a cliché (which it is), but it’s actually quite a nice way of saying that rhetorical devices and figures of speech can transform an ordinary piece of writing or an everyday conversation into something much more memorable, evocative, and enjoyable. Hundreds of different rhetorical techniques and turns of phrase have been identified and described over the centuries—of which the 21 listed here are only a fraction—but they’re all just as effective and just as useful when employed successfully.

21 Rhetorical Devices Explained (Warning: one offensive phrase might be included, but has been seen on this site, perhaps in error "when ... freezes over")

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Well, I believe the Lord was speaking the truth.

dreadnought said:

Well, I believe the Lord was speaking the truth.

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That's good. So do I.

OP ... its possible that Jesus did not want the other person to worship Jesus - instead of God. The operative word here ... **instead**.

Knowing the heart of the questioner, Jesus saw confusion in him. So Jesus directed him to worship the Ultimate authority ... God. In other words, Jesus was not a 'replacement' for God.

Yes, there is some confusion, just the same. Because the Trinity is inherently confusing, and no doubt it was even more confusing to people hearing Christ's words while he was alive on Earth.

zoidar said:

An idea I have myself is that Jesus talks from the belief that man has about him, that Jesus is just a prophet, a man. The man calls him: "Good teacher", which seems to point to that he has no idea of who Jesus is. So Jesus replies from that perspective of the man, that if he only is a man, then why does he call him good, since only God is good. In doing so Jesus is saying indirectly: "If you want to continue to call me good, you also have to acknowledge that I'm God".

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I like this very much. Great insight. Christ is also teaching this rich young ruler the distinction between Law & Gospel in relation to Justification by Faith Alone! In other words that the Law only condemns us.

So Christ asks this young man. 20 You know the commandments: ‘Do not commit adultery, Do not murder, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Honor your father and mother.’” 21 And he said, “All these I have kept from my youth.” 22 When Jesus heard this, he said to him, “One thing you still lack. Sell all that you have and distribute to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; and come, follow me.”

Christ was exposing his lies. That he had kept all these commandments. If he had, then he would have sold everything and gave his proceeds to the poor and followed Christ! And he would have received his treasure in HEAVEN!!!!

zoidar said:

Mark 10
17 And as he was setting out on his journey, a man ran up and knelt before him and asked him, "Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?" 18 And Jesus said to him, "Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone."

What does Jesus mean by only God is good. He himself is God, isn't he as good as the Father? I have read a few explainations but none has really given me an answer that I'm satisfied with.

One explanation I have been given is that Jesus talks about his human nature, which isn't as good as the father.

Another one is that Jesus means that everything good comes from the Father, he himself is begotten from the Father, so the Father is the source of all good. So even Jesus has the same goodness as the Father, he from one point of view isn't as good since he is begotten from the Father.

An idea I have myself is that Jesus talks from the belief that man has about him, that Jesus is just a prophet, a man. The man calls him: "Good teacher", which seems to point to that he has no idea of who Jesus is. So Jesus replies from that perspective of the man, that if he only is a man, then why does he call him good, since only God is good. In doing so Jesus is saying indirectly: "If you want to continue to call me good, you also have to acknowlege that I'm God".

Do you got better explanations?

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"Another one is that Jesus means that everything good comes from the Father, he himself is begotten from the Father, so the Father is the source of all good. So even Jesus has the same goodness as the Father, he from one point of view isn't as good since he is begotten from the Father."

This is NOT taught anywhere in the Holy Bible.

Jesus is asking WHY is He being called good? Absolute Goodness belongs only with God. He is not denying that He is Good, or God; but showing that only God is truly Good.

Jesus forgave sins, which is only possible if He is Almighty God. (see, Matthew 9:1-8; Luke 7:48, etc)

Jesus accepted worship, again, only possible if He is Almighty God. He told the devil who was testing Him, "worship God", and yet there are many times recorded in the Gospels, where He was worshiped as God, and never once did He say, "don't do this, as I am only a human being". (Matthew 2:11, 14:44, 28:8-9, etc)

Jesus said in John 5:17, "But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work.", in a unique sense, as His own Father. This is how the Jews also understood His words, "Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was His own (so the Greek) Father, making himself equal with God.". This was seen by the Jews, as Jesus "making himself EQUAL with God". We have a very interesting definition of the Greek word, "ἴσος" (equal), by Dr Joseph Thayer in his Greek lexicon, "to claim for one's self, the nature, rank, authority, which belongs to God". Thayer was a Unitarian, who denied the Deity of Jesus Christ! But here is honest in giving what the words actually means, rather than twist its meaning to suit his beliefs. NO human being can ever claim EQUALITY with Almighty God. Note that Jesus never "corrected" the Jews by what they said.

Jesus also claimed EQUAL "power, authority and protection", with the Father. "My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me. I give them eternal life, and they will never perish, and no one will snatch them out of my hand. My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand. I and the Father are one.” (John 10:27-30). Believers are secure in the Power of Jesus, as well as the Father, Who are BOTH One, essentially. This is impossible for Jesus to have said, IF He were not Himself 100% COEQUAL with the Father. His words would be blasphemy, IF they were untrue.

Jesus also climed EQUAL HONOR with God the Father, "that all may honor the Son, JUST AS they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him" (John 5:23). In the Greek, "just as" is, "exactly in the same manner". ONLY One Who Himself is Almighty God, could make such a demand!

Great question. I like your thread here. I will share this with you. Christ is preaching Law & Gospel to this rich young ruler (Luke 18 & Mark 10).

First its seems this young man never heard the Gospel or just doesn't believe it. Because if he had heard it, he wouldn't have ask Jesus, "What must "I" do to inherit eternal life?" Christ asks this rich young man
if he knows the 10 commandments? And he said, “All these I have kept from my youth. Christ knew that this young man has no kept these commandments, to inherit eternal life.

So Christ tells him that he still lacks something. Sell everything you have and distribute it to the poor, and follow me. And you will have treasure in heaven! Now if this rich young ruler had obeyed the 10 commandments, he would have done what Christ told him to do. Because Loving your God with all your heart, mind, and soul, and your neighbor and yourself. Fulfills the Law. But since no one is good, except God, the Law cannot be fulfilled. Christ was pointing this young man to the Gospel, to himself for eternal life.

Christ was preaching the distinction between Law & Gospel in relation to Justification by faith Alone! Christ was stripping away this young man's notion that he had kept the 10 commandments through his own righteousness; which is not possible!

This rich young ruler needed to understand his plight before God. That no flesh will be justified through the Law (Galatians 2). And this should drive sinners to the Gospel; to Christ for Eternal Life.

Hope this helps!

God Bless

I think the point Jesus was trying to make is that there is no good in man apart from that which he receives from GOD via the holy spirit, e.g., understanding, knowledge, wisdom, etc. Man without this can only sin.

zoidar said:

So Jesus replies from that perspective of the man, that if he only is a man, then why does he call him good, since only God is good. In doing so Jesus is saying indirectly: "If you want to continue to call me good, you also have to acknowlege that I'm God".

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That's generally what I get out of it.

dreadnought said:

I think the Lord meant it when he said no one is good but the Father.

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Jesus did NOT say, "no one but the Father." He said, "no one but God."

zoidar said:

Mark 10
17 And as he was setting out on his journey, a man ran up and knelt before him and asked him, "Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?" 18 And Jesus said to him, "Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone."

What does Jesus mean by only God is good. He himself is God, isn't he as good as the Father? I have read a few explainations but none has really given me an answer that I'm satisfied with.

One explanation I have been given is that Jesus talks about his human nature, which isn't as good as the father.

Another one is that Jesus means that everything good comes from the Father, he himself is begotten from the Father, so the Father is the source of all good. So even Jesus has the same goodness as the Father, he from one point of view isn't as good since he is begotten from the Father.

An idea I have myself is that Jesus talks from the belief that man has about him, that Jesus is just a prophet, a man. The man calls him: "Good teacher", which seems to point to that he has no idea of who Jesus is. So Jesus replies from that perspective of the man, that if he only is a man, then why does he call him good, since only God is good. In doing so Jesus is saying indirectly: "If you want to continue to call me good, you also have to acknowlege that I'm God".

Do you got better explanations?

Click to expand...

I think Jesus is hinting to his own divinity and calling himself God. He doesn't deny he is good he merely says only God is good, then answered the question about eternal life. The man perhaps walked away thinking "who is this man?" which I think Jesus was trying to force.

Everyone remember that Jesus said he couldn't do anything of himself, but only those things that he saw the father do (john 5:19).