Mountain-moving faith refers to the simple fact that true faith can accomplish more than you expect. No unreal conditions are implied.
It seems you don't understand the terminology that Paul is using here. Paul is not giving us a definition of the gift of faith, he is giving us an exceptional example of it. He says
"if I have all faith, so as [ὥστε] to remove mountains," or as the NKVJ better puts it
"so that I could remove mountains".
The word
ὥστε here means
'to such an extent'. The following examples of the word will help you to understand its meaning:
Matthew 8:24 And behold, there arose a great storm on the sea, so that [ὥστε] the boat was being covered with the waves;
Mark 1:45 But he went out and began to proclaim it freely and to spread the news around, to such an extent [ὥστε] that Jesus could no longer publicly enter a city
Mark 3:20 And He came home, and the crowd gathered again, to such an extent [ὥστε] that they could not even eat a meal.
Mark 4:32 yet when it is sown, it grows up and becomes larger than all the garden plants and forms large branches so that [ὥστε] the birds of the air can nest under its shade.
Luke 5:7 And they came and filled both of the boats, so that [ὥστε] they began to sink.
Luke 12:1 a crowd of many thousands had gathered, so that [ὥστε] they were trampling on one another,
Acts 5:15 to such an extent [ὥστε] that they even carried the sick out into the streets and laid them on cots and pallets,
Acts 16:26 suddenly there came a great earthquake, so that [ὥστε] the foundations of the prison house were shaken;
Acts 19:12 God did extraordinary miracles through Paul, so that [ὥστε] even handkerchiefs and aprons that had touched him were taken to the sick, and their illnesses were cured and the evil spirits left them.
Acts 19:16 He gave them such a beating that [ὥστε] they ran out of the house naked and bleeding.
2 Corinthians 1:8 we were burdened excessively, beyond our strength, so that [ὥστε] we despaired even of life;
Believers in the Testament of Job would believe in the possibility of humans speaking in angelic tongues, even if this is not for them
Why would they believe the Testament of Job? You do realise that this book is not inspired scripture don't you? It is a non-canonical fairy tale. It may not have even been written when Paul wrote his epistle. Even if some of it's readers were gullible enough to believe it was a true story and someone really did speak in the language of angels, that doesn't make "the tongues of angels" in 1 Cor 13:1 any more real - only that some of it's readers might have thought it was real.
You have continually ducked my case (1) that the outpouring in Acts 2 was a form of prophecy in fulfillment of Joel 2:28, (2) that the gift of prophecy is clearly distinguished from glossolalia in Paul and elsewhere in Acts,
That is because your rather contrived theory about tongues being prophecy in Acts 2 is irrelevant.
(3) that nowhere (apart from Acts 2) does Paul or Luke identify the glossolalia they describe as human language or imply that it could be understood by anyone apart from the gift of interpretation.
That's not true. There is only one definitive description of the gift of tongues in scripture. If tongues was a different phenomenon elsewhere then we would have been provided with a re-definition. Yet nowhere is it redefined as a non-human, heavenly language, or anything else. In the absence of such a redefinition, the principles of hermeneutics demand that all other instances of the gift must be presumed to be the same thing.
Luke uses the exact same unique terminology for tongues (glossa and laleo) in Acts as Paul does in 1 Corinthians. Luke was a close companion of Paul's and wrote Acts under his authority. If Luke knew it was a different phenomenon he would never have used the exact same terminology that Paul uses.
In addition there is plenty of evidence to confirm that other instances of tongues are foreign human languages:
- In Acts 11:15,17 Peter reports to the Jerusalem council that the Gentiles at Cornelius household experienced the same phenomenon as they experienced at Pentecost. As a result the hated Gentiles were accepted into the church. If it was anything different they would never have been accepted.
- The word tongues (languages) is often in the plural form indicating that multiple languages were spoken in Corinth. That mean it cannot be the language of heaven (unless there was a Tower of Babel event in heaven).
- Paul quotes Isaiah's prophecy in 1 Cor 14:21-22 which refers to foreign languages spoken among the Jews as being a sign of judgement against them. Paul then identifies Corinthian tongues as being the same.
- Paul said he spoke in the tongues of men in 1 Cor 13:1. In the context of spiritual gifts that can only be the gift of tongues.
- 1800 years of church history have always affirmed tongues to be human languages. The idea of it being a heavenly language was only something hatched up by Pentecostals in the twentieth century after they discovered the natural phenomenon that linguists call glossolalia.
1 Corinthians 14:28: "But if there is no one to interpret, let him speak
for himself (Greek: "heauto") and to God."
I quote Hans Conzelman's magisterial commentary on 1 Corinthians: "The rule that he should speak in tongues
at home (heauto) is in harmony with vs. 2."
I see you have misquoted Conzelman to make it appear that
heauto also means 'at home'.
heauto never means 'at home'. It always means 'himself'. Nowhere in scripture does it say tongues should be practiced at home in private. The exact opposite in fact - doing so would be a misuse of a spiritual gift.
1 Peter 4:10 Each of you should use whatever gift you have received to serve others
1 Corinthians 12:7 Now to each one the manifestation of the Spirit is given for the common good.
But interpreted tongues in church represent God's address to the people in a message that must be obeyed (14:21-22). In that sense, interpreted glossolalia is "a sign for unbelievers" in a way that private praise and thanksgiving in tongues is not.
You seem to be very confused about this passage.
“By men of strange tongues and by the lips of strangers I will speak to this people" is not the gift of tongues. Paul is quoting Isaiah's prophecy which is referring to the foreign armies invading Israel and speaking their own foreign language among the Jews. Foreigners speaking their foreign languages among the Jews were always seen as a sign of divine judgement against them (see also Deut 28:49, Jer 5:15). Which is why Paul tells the Corinthians not to speak their foreign language tongues untranslated in the church, otherwise visitors will be repelled.
Paul teaches that we must actively strive for spiritual gifts like glossolalia and prophecy in order to receive them.
No he doesn't. Paul says the Corinthian
church should desire the greater gifts (such as prophecy), not the least of the gift (tongues).
So now you're grieving the Holy Spirit by implying that He is incapable of bestowing the true gift on you, even if you diligently strive to receive it?
Modern glossolalia is not the true gift of tongues. It is proven to be a natural psychological phenomenon that anyone can acquire, Christian or not. The true New Testament gift is miraculously speaking foreign languages.
Trust me when I assure you that Fee believes modern glossolalia should normally treated as a genuine charism inspired by the Holy Spirit.
But Fee doesn't think modern glossolalia is NT tongues. He thinks it is something akin to it. Therefore any attempts to try and justify it as NT tongues from scripture are futile - it is an extra-biblical activity.