Does God have a God? Explaining John 20:17 in Defense of the Trinity.

sparow

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Jesus wasn't a created being as your post implies. Michael, Gabriel, lucifer were all three created and separate beings. They are arch angels.

They aren't duoity which is oneity or oneity that somehow is threeity. Where anyone comes up with this stuff amazes me.

The god being who, became flesh, that would be the word, created all things, even the angels!


These things are not proven they are only believed. Michael has some parallel tasks with the messiah.
 
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Radrook

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Consider what the word "God" means; deity, which can be singular and/or plural; Jesus is God singular, the Father is God singular and Jesus and His Father are God plural; Is the Father Jesus's God; didn't Jesus say, "My God, Why have you forsaken me".
Sounds like polytheism to many.
 
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sparow

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I know, we do not believe in the same God.
You admitted to me that the Holy Spirit is not a person and the Holy Spirit is not God.
This is contrary to what Scripture teaches.

All three persons of the Godhead or Trinity are God.
The Father is a person and is God.
The Son is a person and is God.
The Holy Spirit is a person and is God.
They all exist distinctly different from each other yet they also exist as only one God.

Also, are you saying we will be gods in the sense that we will have the same substance, essence, and power as God?
Are you saying the spirit part of Christ who existed at the foundation of the world was created at some point?

As for Jesus being Michael the Archangel: Yeah, that is not true. It would not make sense for Jesus to take on the identity of an angel. I can see Christ putting on an empty outer shell, temple, or soul-less body that is like that of angels so as to house his Almighty being or essence as God Almighty (Because there are many passages in the Old Testament showing how Christ went under the title called the "Angel of the Lord"), but for Him to declare He is an angel by another name is just silly. Jesus is God. Jesus is eternal. Jesus is uncreated. Jesus is the second person of the Godhead or the Trinity. Jesus is not an angel (like other angels) or a created being.


...

It seems a shame that your God depends on human concocted definitions.

The trinity doctrine requires that the three be persons yet with the exception of the trinity any definition of "person requires a human body. So the trinity requires its own unique definition of "person" which amounts to circular logic.

John said that whatever form Christ has taken that is the form those of the first resurrection will take.
 
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sparow

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John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

John 3:18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

John 5:25 Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live.

John 9:35 Jesus heard that they had cast him out; and when he had found him, he said unto him, Dost thou believe on the Son of God?
John 9:37 And Jesus said unto him, Thou hast both seen him, and it is he that talketh with thee.

John 10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

John 11:4 When Jesus heard that, he said, This sickness is not unto death, but for the glory of God, that the Son of God might be glorified thereby.

I do not understand what you imply by these scriptures mean; thy do not imply Jesus was always God's son. Satan seems to be the first to call Jesus the son of God, but I see nothing in scripture that suggests Jesus was Gods son before He took on human form.
 
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sparow

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Sounds like polytheism to many.


There is an assumption that polytheism is always wrong. By way of analogy consider the word "people", a thousand people are murderers; should we assume all people are murders? Polytheism describes pagan practice which has nothing in common with God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit. You depend on a peculiar use of semantics being correct that God will not be offended.
 
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Radrook

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There is an assumption that polytheism is always wrong. By way of analogy consider the word "people", a thousand people are murderers; should we assume all people are murders? Polytheism describes pagan practice which has nothing in common with God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit. You depend on a peculiar use of semantics being correct that God will not be offended.
I am merely stating that the Trinity doctrine sounds as if it were polytheism to millions of people. I am not saying that if indeed it is true, that it is evil. Indeed, if it were true, it really would not change my respect for Jesus one bit. Why should it?
 
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Man was made in God's image. So if God is three in one, then we can expect that we are three and one to some degree, as well. In fact, we know this to be true.

For Man has a:

1. Soul
(Ultimate mind, will, and emotions)

2. Spiritual body

3. Physical body​


...
 
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Jack Terrence

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But I have noticed that you have 'yet' to address the scripture I posted.
Where did you post the scripture? I do not read the threads. I reply to "Alerts." Give one scripture which you think proves that Jesus did not operate on his own power and I will answer it.
 
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Der Alte

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I do not understand what you imply by these scriptures mean; thy do not imply Jesus was always God's son. Satan seems to be the first to call Jesus the son of God, but I see nothing in scripture that suggests Jesus was Gods son before He took on human form.
The post I was responding to said that Jesus only referred to Himself as "son of man" never "Son of God." I was not responding to the question if Jesus was always God's son.
 
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Neogaia777

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The post I was responding to said that Jesus only referred to Himself as "son of man" never "Son of God." I was not responding to the question if Jesus was always God's son.
He asked the apostles who they and the people thought he was? And praised Peter for having the only "right" answer, that he said was revealed to him (Peter) by "his/their" Father in Heaven... And that was, "That he was the Christ (Messiah, only Savior) the "Son of God"... Jesus would not glorify himself, but wanted that to be up to them, as it was revealed to them by the Spirit of the Father, or "tell" them as to say to them "I am The Son of God" or "I am God", although he did say "I AM" to these things, before he was cruxified...
 
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Der Alte

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Simple question that only requires a 'simple answer':
Has there ever been an entity that believed that it 'could' rob God of equality? An entity that DID consider 'equality to God' something to be 'grasped'?
And 'who' was this entity? What entity attempted to 'rob' God of equality. What entity attempted to 'grasp' equality from God? . . '
MEC
I believe there is nothing wrong with the translation in the KJV's rendering in Philippians 2:6.
...
I was not addressing "the translation in the KJV's rendering in Philippians 2:6." I was referring to how it was twisted to fit heterodox teaching in the post quoted immediately above your post here.
,....But the KJV rendering is somewhat lacking as I said in my previous post. The Greek word "arpagmos" is translated "robbery" in the KJV. This came about because the word "arpagmos" only occurs once in the KJV and the correct meaning was not known. According to the scholarship which I cited, in my previous post, the word was used in Greek writings contemporary with the NT, means "something to take advantage of,” or, more idiomatically, ‘'as something to use for his own advantage.”

.....Second point the Greek word "einai" translated "to be" in the KJV is not a future tense or subjunctive. It is a present infinitive and correctly translated as "the being equal with God," thus it was a then and there present reality not something considered and declined.
 
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Der Alte

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. . . And this isn't only 'my' conclusion, it is the conclusion that many who have studied history and the Bible have come to. I am 'not alone'. And in 'most' instances, those that defend 'trinity' know very little if 'any' of the 'history'
of it's 'creation'. It was 'not' created by God, Christ or His apostles. It was not a 'part' of 'Christianity' until 'hundreds of years' after the 'death of Christ'. So it could 'not' have been taught by any prophet or apostle. Not prophets or apostles of the Bible.
If you have studied the Bible and the "Trinity" as much as you claim you would know that the Trinity was written about by the early church 170 years and less after Christ. However In addition to the Father, Jesus and the Holy Spirit were addressed or referred to as God in scripture.
 
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Neogaia777

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From: trinitytruth.org:

Tertullian was just a forerunner of the Nicene doctrine and did not state the immanent trinity. His use of trinitas (Latin: 'Threeness') emphasised the manifold character of God. In his treatise against Praxeas he used the words, “Trinity and economy, persons and substance.” The Son is distinct from the Father, and the Spirit from both the Father and the Son. “These three are one substance, not one person; and it is said, 'I and my Father are one' in respect not of the singularity of number but the unity of the substance.” In his book Tertullian against Praxeas, he also states that the Son was not co-eternal with the Father and did have a beginning as the begotten Son of God. He also did not teach that the Holy Spirit was a literal being. So the trinity doctrine as we know it today did not even come from the man who introduced the word Trinity.

"Trinity" as we know it today, was 'never' mentioned until it was 'formed'. That took place almost 'four hundred' years after the death of Christ. Even the council at Nicaea didn't establish 'trinity'. It only dealt with the essence of Christ. It was even 'later' that the 'doctrine' of 'trinity' itself 'came into being'.

Trying to use propaganda, especially 'false propaganda' does little to add any true 'faith' to the doctrine. At least try to be as accurate as you are able. Otherwise it makes it appear that you are 'grasping at straws' rather than actually defending it. For why would anyone use 'inaccurate' information to defend something? Makes it look like it can't be defended with the 'truth'.

Tertullian spoke of 'no trinity' as it is defined today. So to make such an indication is 'false' teaching. We actually have no accurate record of the 'first mention' of 'trinity' as it exists today. But we certainly know it was 'after' 170 AD. It wasn't used 'commonly' until the fifth century. It was 'not mentioned' at the council at Nicaea. Not in anything I've ever read.

Blessings,

MEC
Don't you realize that these were people "trying to figure things out" and did not have the kind of advancements that have sped things up today, all the information, knowledge or tools in their arsenal or at their disposal, like we do today, which means that all this "old" information, while it can be somewhat useful, is pretty out of date for the most part and are full of older theories that most of us have already built on and have now surpassed, and cannot compare with what were discovering now, today, that even the Bible itself says, would not become fully opened up, and fully known until the end (times) were very near, or we were "in that period" of time, when there would be a sudden explosion of truth and knowledge and wisdom and understanding, that our predecessor's just didn't get to have...

God Bless!
 
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Der Alte

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See, you attempt to deceive. Either that or you need to do further research or come to a proper understanding of the research that you have done.
The very 'earliest' mention of 'triune' was around 170 AD. And that didn't offer 'anything' to 'do' with 'trinity' as it much 'later' evolved.
No, you 'say' that 'obscure scripture' makes such an indication, but in truth, it says no such thing.
Empty argumentation which does not address, explain or clarify anything. No different than a kindergartner saying, "I'm right and you're wrong! Am too! Nuh huh!."
Look, it's simple: 'trinity' insists and only exists based on a number of 'facts' that it relies upon for the concept to even exist. I have shown that at least 'two of the concepts' are proven inconsistent with 'scripture'.
You have shown no such thing to me! If you can, link me to a post/posts where you have shown any of this?
[1]Christ is 'not equal' to God in that:
[2]All indications offered in scripture point to a 'created' entity.
[3]Christ openly stated that the Father is 'greater' than the Son
.
*1, ignores Philippians 2:6.
*2, zero scripture provided.
*3, See response to *1.

Not really sure of your understanding of 'greater than, less than or equal'. But 'equal' means: the same. The Father and the Son are 'not the same'. And no amount of 'Greek words' is going to alter the 'fact'. The fact that 'according to scripture' the Son and the Father are 'not equal'. If they were equal, why do you suppose that the Son did not reveal Himself to 'be the Father'?
God is one. There are three who are called or referred to as God in scripture. The Father is God but He is not the Son or the Holy Spirit.The Son is God but He is not the Father or the Holy Spirit.The Holy Spirit is God but He is not the Son or the Father. There is one God.
.....Why didn't Jesus reveal Himself to be God? What happened to Him when He only claimed to be the Son of God? What would have happened to Jesus if He had claimed to be God? He appeared to be an ordinary, mortal man to everyone. They rejected Him when He claimed to be the Son of God, if He had claimed to be God they would have thought He was insane and they would have done the same and even worse.
.....When John told his disciples to ask Jesus "Are thou he that should come, or do we look for another? " Even then Jesus did not say "Yes, I am the Messiah," or "Yes, I am the Son of God," He said, "Go and show John again those things which you do hear and see: The blind receive their sight, and the lame walk, the lepers are cleansed, and the deaf hear, the dead are raised up, and the poor have the gospel preached to them. And blessed is he, whosoever shall not be offended in me." Matthew 11;3-6

See, you are tying to 'pull' that 'stuff' that we need to 'reinterpret' the Bible in order to find the 'truth'. What you don't seem to realize is that I 'do not' follow such a 'belief'. I believe that the Bile is the 'word of God'. While there may be a 'few' mistakes offered in it's wording or use of capital letters, there are no 'mistakes' that are capable of hendering [sic] the 'truth'. For it is 'not only the letters or words' of the Bible that lead us to 'truth', but the Holy Spirit that makes is possible for us to come to proper understanding.
In much of what you consider to be 'works of the 'church' fathers', I find 'no such Spirit'. I witness 'philosophy' and 'mythology' and 'imagination'. Not inspired by the Holy Spirit but their own imaginations. For anyone that knows how can write whatever they 'choose'. Doesn't make them 'holy' or even remotely 'correct'. It is up to 'us' to make such evaluations 'according' to scripture.
Blessings,
MEC
Most of this is just rehashing what you said above. Yes, the Holy Spirit does guide believers, unfortunately every heterodox group around; LDS. JW. UPCI. OP, INC, WWCG etc, claims they are guided by the Holy Spirit and they know they are right and everyone else is wrong.
.....The writings of the ECF, who were native Greek speakers, give us a snapshot of how the early church interpreted and practiced the scripture. Are they wrong because they contradict someone's pet doctrine? It will take more than hand waving and pooh poohing to prove it.
 
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Der Alte

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. . . Tertullian was just a forerunner of the Nicene doctrine and did not state the immanent trinity. His use of trinitas (Latin: 'Threeness') emphasised the manifold character of God. In his treatise against Praxeas he used the words, “Trinity and economy, persons and substance.” The Son is distinct from the Father, and the Spirit from both the Father and the Son. “These three are one substance, not one person; and it is said, 'I and my Father are one' in respect not of the singularity of number but the unity of the substance.” In his book Tertullian against Praxeas, he also states that the Son was not co-eternal with the Father and did have a beginning as the begotten Son of God. He also did not teach that the Holy Spirit was a literal being. So the trinity doctrine as we know it today did not even come from the man who introduced the word Trinity.
"Trinity" as we know it today, was 'never' mentioned until it was 'formed'. That took place almost 'four hundred' years after the death of Christ. Even the council at Nicaea didn't establish 'trinity'. It only dealt with the essence of Christ. It was even 'later' that the 'doctrine' of 'trinity' itself 'came into being'.
Trying to use propaganda, especially 'false propaganda' does little to add any true 'faith' to the doctrine. At least try to be as accurate as you are able. Otherwise it makes it appear that you are 'grasping at straws' rather than actually defending it. For why would anyone use 'inaccurate' information to defend something? Makes it look like it can't be defended with the 'truth'.
Tertullian spoke of 'no trinity' as it is defined today. So to make such an indication is 'false' teaching. We actually have no accurate record of the 'first mention' of 'trinity' as it exists today. But we certainly know it was 'after' 170 AD. It wasn't used 'commonly' until the fifth century. It was 'not mentioned' at the council at Nicaea. Not in anything I've ever read.
Blessings,
MEC
This is all a 2nd/3rd copy/paste from a questionable website. Here directly from Tertullian's writing referring to the Paraclete, i.e. the Holy Spirit as a person. From this we can conclude that most of your copy/paste is equally suspect.
Tertullian VII. Against Praxeas Chap. IX
Happily the Lord Himself employs this expression of the person of the Paraclete, so as to signify not a division or severance, but a disposition (of mutual relations in the Godhead); for He says, “I will pray the Father, and He shall send you another Comforter…even the Spirit of truth,” thus making the Paraclete distinct from Himself, even as we say that the Son is also distinct from the Father; so that He showed a third degree in the Paraclete, as we believe the second degree is in the Son, by reason of the order observed in the Economy. Besides, does not the very fact that they have the distinct names of Father and Son amount to a declaration that they are distinct in personality?
Tertullian III. On the Veiling of Virgins.
Chap. I Whereas the reason why the Lord sent the Paraclete was, that, since human mediocrity was unable to take in all things at once, discipline should, little by little, be directed, and ordained, and carried on to perfection, by that Vicar of the Lord, the Holy Spirit. “Still,” He said, “I have many things to say to you, but ye are not yet able to bear them: when that Spirit of truth shall have come, He will conduct you into all truth, and will report to you the supervening (things).” But above, withal, He made a declaration concerning this His work. What, then, is the Paraclete’s administrative office but this: the direction of discipline, the revelation of the Scriptures, the reformation of the intellect, the advancement toward the “better things?” Nothing is without stages of growth: all things await their season. In short, the preacher says, “A time to everything.”, … So, too, righteousness — for the God of righteousness and of creation is the same — was first in a rudimentary state, having a natural fear of God: from that stage it advanced, through the Law and the Prophets, to infancy; from that stage it passed, through the Gospel, to the fervour of youth: now, through the Paraclete, it is settling into maturity. He will be, after Christ, the only one to be called and revered as Master; He is the only prelate, because He alone succeeds Christ.
 
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Neogaia777

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I see. We are more capable of 'understanding' and 'following' than those of the 'past'?

Your contention is that 'Christianity' 'evolved' into it's present state?

No, not evolved, but "grows" with time, more knowledge and increased understanding, or perhaps you wish to explain why even God himself had to present us with an inferior covenant first, that could do very little during that time to teach them superior (that would only come later on) knowledge wisdom, truth, understanding, ect. about matters of faith and God, why did what was weaker and lesser and inferior come first, in the past to point to a point in the future, when more about these things would be understood better... Did it evolve?, or did the people need time to mature and grow, like today's age...

Jesus said the "Holy Spirit of truth would come and "lead us" into "all truth"... Do you suppose this all happened "right away", and then become "less" later on?, or would it happen over time, with generations building upon previous generations work, and grow and become "more" over time and up to the time of the end, when we would, only then, have "more" truth then we've ever had before...?

Paul warned that during 'his time' that there were 'already' those that had 'gone out from among them' to 'teach damnable heresy', and that this situation would only wax 'worse and worse' till the 'end'.

Have I (we) been "teaching damnable heresy" or just "truth", perhaps to hard for you to accept or hear or listen to?

Neogala, openly admitting that you are an 'amateur', wouldn't that put you in a position to 'listen' more attempt to 'teach'?

"Out of the mouth of babes..." I am a child, I am a babe... I am a foolish one, (an amateur) made and used by him to confound the (supposedly) wise (in their own eyes)...

Let me also add that Tertulian also believed that Christ was a 'created being'. That there was 'a time before' the Son existed. He came to this conclusion simply by accepting the 'fact' that the Son was 'begotten'.

So if we are to consider the 'teachings' of Tertulian, why deny or ignore what He suggested concerning Christ being a 'created being'?

Blessings,

MEC

He apparently didn't believe the Gospel of John, who is called "the only true witness" of him (Christ)... "If", "if" there was a time "before" the Son existed, a time when he was "created" or born or made, how much can we really know about it? It would have had to have taken place, long, long before this universe, this reality, or anything in it, long, long "before" all that we know, or can possibly know as "real" or long, long before anything "we" can know at all, period... So, what's your point?

Jesus said that "He" resurrected "himself" in scripture, only God alone can raise the dead, let alone raise themselves from the dead, no angel or spirit can do that... (John 2:19-22)

God Bless!
 
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I was not addressing "the translation in the KJV's rendering in Philippians 2:6." I was referring to how it was twisted to fit heterodox teaching in the post quoted immediately above your post here.
,....But the KJV rendering is somewhat lacking as I said in my previous post. The Greek word "arpagmos" is translated "robbery" in the KJV. This came about because the word "arpagmos" only occurs once in the KJV and the correct meaning was not known. According to the scholarship which I cited, in my previous post, the word was used in Greek writings contemporary with the NT, means "something to take advantage of,” or, more idiomatically, ‘'as something to use for his own advantage.”

.....Second point the Greek word "einai" translated "to be" in the KJV is not a future tense or subjunctive. It is a present infinitive and correctly translated as "the being equal with God," thus it was a then and there present reality not something considered and declined.

I believe the King James Bible to be the inerrant perfect Word of God that is faithful translation from the original languages. For I believe it is the divinely inspired preserved Word for our day. It is not improvement upon the originals, nor is it inferior to them. Now, while I may believe the KJV is perfect and without error, from my experience, I have found that most KJV-Onlyists believe that you should only read the King James. Many will also say that the King James is not all that hard to understand, too.

I disagree with both of these conclusions. So while I believe the KJV is the divinely inspired Word of God, I do not think one should stick to just reading it alone. For I have found Modern Translations to be very helpful in updating the language from the "Early Modern English" (i.e. the 1600's English); However, I do not put my entire trust in Modern Translations because the devil has placed his name all over them and key doctrines have been watered down and important messages within God's Word have been neutered.

In other words, I read Modern Translations as if I am panning for gold. I have to sift thru the dirt or the garbage in order to get to the gold of the passage that lines up with the King James.

This gold that is found within the dirt of the translations can be very useful because it reflects what is in the King James. This is the gold that people hear and are saved when they hear the gospel message. For someone can be saved just by hearing a few Bible verses about the gospel message of Jesus Christ. This gold shines thru and penetrates their heart.

Like the Parable of the Sower. Believers receive the Word of God into their heart from those passages that are talking about salvation. Words that line up with the King James. These words are sown in their heart. And if they let this Word take root in their heart by continually reading the Word of God, then they will have hidden His Word in their heart so they will not sin against Him. It will have taken root and they will not fall away due to persecution or the trials of this life.

For it only takes a few Bible verses to get someone saved. However, washing yourself with the water of the Word is going to be a lot more effective if you use the pure Word of God. For we received the Word not as the words of men, but as the very words of God (1 Thessalonians 2:13). For if one second, I could not trust even just one word of God, then what makes you think that I could not trust the rest of the words within His Holy written Word? No, I did not receive the Word of God as the words of men but as the very words of God (just as Thessalonians states).

However, that said, I believe God had inspired His Word in the King James for three major reasons based on Scripture.


Three Scriptural Reasons to Trust in A Perfect Word Today.

#1. God's Word claims that it is perfect
God's Word claims that it is perfect (Psalms 12:6) (Psalms 119:140) (Proverbs 30:5) and that it will be preserved for all generations (Psalms 12:7) and it will stand forever (Isaiah 40:8) (1 Peter 1:25). Therefore, seeing Scripture plainly states these facts, it then becomes an issue of a test of your faith in God's Word (See the test the devil gave to Eve in Genesis 3:1); Because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe (1 Thessalonians 2:13). In other words, do you believe you hold the very words of God within your hands like the disciples did?

#2. KJV vs. Modern Translations
Scripture says,

17 "Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but a corrupt tree bringeth forth evil fruit.
18 A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit, neither can a corrupt tree bring forth good fruit."
(Matthew 7:17-18).

A simple side by side comparison of the KJV vs Modern Translations shows us that the devil tries to place his name in the Modern Versions. This is the bad fruit from the tree of the Modern Translations. Have no idea what I am talking about?

Well, many Bible versions say that it is the dragon who is standing on the sea shore in Revelation. This is just evil and wrong.

See Parallel Version for Revelation 13:1 here...

Revelation 13:1 The dragon stood on the shore of the sea. And I saw a beast coming out of the sea. It had ten horns and seven heads, with ten crowns on its horns, and on each head a blasphemous name.

See, if you know anything about Bible language, standing on something means that you "own it"; And the devil wants to own you. In the King James, John is standing on the seashore. Yet in many Bible versions the dragon (i.e. the devil) is standing on the seashore.

Why is this a problem?

Lets look at...

Genesis 22:17
"That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the sea shore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies"

Did you catch that? God says to Abraham that He will multiply his seed as the stars of the heaven and as the sand which is upon the seashore where he will then possess the gate of his enemies (i.e. the devil and his kingdom). The apostle John who wrote Revelation was Jewish and he was the promised seed of Genesis 22 standing on the seashore in Revelation 13. It was not the dragon or the devil standing on the seashore.

For certain Modern Versions eliminate the part of the passage in Revelation 13:1 that says that John is standing on the seashore (When he refers to himself as "I").

Also, the devil tries to take out key points in important discussions within the Bible (Which can effect doctrine). For example: In the bulk of Romans 7, Paul talks of the problem he had from his past experience within the Pharisee's religion, which reduced salvation into a form of "Man Directed Works Alone Salvationism" and in going back to the Old Covenant Law (Which leads to problems). For while Paul was a Pharisee, he struggled with sin, but in Romans 8:1, he gives us the climax or heart of his message as a solution to overcoming sin in Romans 8:1. Now, certain modern translations have eliminated "who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Eliminating this passage destroys the whole thrust of Paul's argument. Walking in the Spirit is the key to being in Christ Jesus. You eliminate that and you destroy Paul's argument. Also, 1 John 5:7 is the only verse in the Bible that is the clearest and most concise teaching on the Godhead (i.e. the Trinity).

#3. Biblical Numerics
Bible Numbers that glorify God and His Word. (Note: These are not equidistant letter sequences or numbers that attempt to get one to have a special dream, or to divine the future in some way - Striving to foretell the future is forbidden in the Bible). Numbers are something that we deal with in our every day life and all things glorify God. So obviously the numbers in God's Word would naturally glorify Him in some way. What am I talking about? Check out this video on Numbers & the Greek New Testament.


Also, here is a video series by Mike Hoggard that talks about the number 7 and number 8 in the King James.




Now, while I may not agree with Mike on everything he teaches in the Bible nor on the way he teaches Bible numbers in every example, I have found that he has made some startling discoveries. Discoveries that do not appear in the modern translations but only in the King James.

I hope this helps.
And may God bless you.


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Inkfingers

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I think people get confused with the idea that we are supposed to worship Jesus but actually we are supposed to BE Jesus (one in Christ, a race of priests, etc) and worship the Father.

The Son is God incarnate, the Logos-made-flesh, and the Father is God discarnate.
 
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If you openly admit that the modern translations are the 'devil' trying to alter the 'truth', why would you expose yourself to the teachings of the devil by reading 'other translations'? That makes absolutely 'no sense' to me. Like 'going to hell' to see if one can learn any 'truth' there. Or attending a Satanic ritual in order to see what you can learn.

If the 'devil' has devised the 'newer' translations in order to deceive, why would you willingly expose yourself to such attempted deception?

Blessings,

MEC

It's the same reason we true Christians are in the world but not of the world. It's for the same reason you use the words "Monday", "Tuesday", "Wednesday," and "Thursday" even though these names are of pagan origin. Even God must be patient with many of his people in their overcoming of their sin. For most believers it is not an overnight process in living holy for God being fit for the master's use in all He wants of them. For even God who is holy can use the devil and evil for His good purposes. For example: God used the evil that the Pharisees intended towards Jesus as a part of His plan to pay for the sins of the entire world (So that man can be forgiven personally of his sins by accepting the free gift of salvation thru Jesus Christ). It's the same reason why Jesus said that he was among sinners. He was there as a great physician to heal those who were sick spiritually (i.e. to help people to be cured of their sin problem whereby they would overcome their sin).

While a select few doctrines have been effected, I believe that the majority of message of God's Word within Modern Translations has remained uneffected by the devil's subtle influence. The gospel and many other teachings or doctrines can still be understood by other verses. I believe a person can still be saved by a reading from Modern Translations. So the gospel has remained uneffected in most Modern Translations. Paul had to be around pagan altars and pagan people in order to evangelize them. Do we stop talking to people because they are evil and not of God? No. Metaphorically speaking, Paul was looking for a few gold nuggets by sifting thru the dirt. This is what we can do with the Modern Translations. While certain key doctrines have been watered down or nuetered and have the devil's name within them, people can be saved and learn many wonderful things even with a watered down version of the Scriptures. For the light of God's Word is hard to snuff out entirely without someone realizing it is no longer God's Word. For example: Do you consider the Queen James Bible to be an accurate translation? Or do you think it is a translation that was influenced by a person's particular sin?

Even idolatry or people worshiping a false God is a sin.
It's why people do not worship God as He is truly revealed within the Scriptures.
John 3:19-21 gives us the reason why men do not come to the light. It is because they had pleasure in unrighteousness.


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