The Administration Of Tongues

Imagican

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The book of Acts makes it perfectly CLEAR that the tongues spoken at Pentecost were NOT 'gibberish'. Only some of the JEWS present didn't recognize the languages that the apostles were speaking in. So only SOME of the Jews present heard what they considered to be 'gibberish'. The other people from different places and different TONGUES, (languages), DID understand what the apostles spoke in their OWN 'tongues', (languages), even down the very dialect of the exact places they came from.

There is NO indication in the ENTIRE Bible that there are ANY OTHER 'form' of tongues offered by God. Every USE of the term 'tongues' is in reference to LANGUAGES.

And IF there WERE such a thing as a 'voice of angels', (Spiritual language), it would be THE SAME no matter WHO spoke it. It would NOT BE GIBBERISH that varies according to the one producing it. EVERYONE that spoke in this 'unknown tongue' would be speaking the SAME 'voice of angels' or (Spiritual Language).

Paul calls the abuse of tongues being perpetrated by those in Corinth as SELF EDIFICATION. And then he immediately STATES that our purpose is NOT the seeking of 'self edification' but we are implored to seek edification that benefits the BODY. Couldn't be ANY clearer to ANY that SEEK true understanding.

Now, how many of you that profess to believe in 'gibberish' being 'unknown tongues' are members of churches where WOMEN speak in unknown tongues IN THE CHURCH? ALL of you, RIGHT?

Yet here is what Paul says in the chapter DEVOTED to tongues:

1 Corinthians 14:

34 Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law.

35 And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.

36 What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?

37 If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.

38 But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.

39 Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues.

40 Let all things be done decently and in order.

If what Paul offered is NOT FOLLOWED explicitly, then those that are not following are NOT letting ALL THINGS be done decently and in order.

One can ONLY speak in tongues as The Spirit give utterance.

You cannot 'speak in TRUE tongues' of your OWN accord. That's GIBBERISH.

Acts 2:4
And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.

This is what we are offered in the BIBLE.

Blessings,

MEC
 
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Hillsage

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It is often absolutely AMAZING how a statement can be interpreted.
We certainly can agree on that.

I say, "If you do it it's going to cause pain and suffering". A person who TRULY understands what I'm offering realizes that it's a warning NOT TO DO IT. Yet another man, VOID of true understanding could come along and say, "SEE, he's telling us that WHEN we DO IT it's going to cause pain and suffering" in an attempt in indicate that my statement wasn't a warning NOT to do it, but that WHEN one does it the effect is going to be pain and suffering. And then USING the pain and suffering as a means of justifying DOING IT and that it's being done PROPERLY for the pain and suffering that follows.
Which only proves that one can prove anything if only their view is sufficiently limited.


In the scripture quoted:

1 Corinthians 14:

3 But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort.

4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.

Fully quoted, YES! But insufficiently 'bolded'. Check what you miss with your POV and MY bolded text.

And then Paul's words that place the entire concept into context:

5 I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, EXCEPT he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.
Paul does not limit self edification from speaking in tongues. But he does exalt doing what I said in my last post.
"But if what you are praying in spirit receives such a burden from The Spirit we are instructed to "pray for an interpretation". WHY, because THEN you can tell the brethren in English.." So now you know, but do you truly understand? I suspect not.

and then:

9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air.

and then what is MOST important so far as UNDERSTANDING is concerned:

12 Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church.
Which is in total agreement with what I just said. Paul never minimizes self edification, but he does exalt church edification. An edification which can come from 'praying in spirit tongues and then praying for interpretation' (obviously not an earthly language YOU KNOW). And with the interpretation you can then share and edify the brethren. IOW 'bottom line' according to scripture tongues with interpretation is EQUAL to prophesy.

Paul COULD NOT say that speaking in tongues did NOT exist. It most certainly WAS a 'spiritual gift' offered to SOME in the very beginning of the formation of the CHURCH. But even THEN, it was STATED that tongues would CEASE.
YES they will cease, and according to your 'litmus' of last therefore least, I supposed I should 'say again' why are prophesy and knowledge still around when tongues was smack in the middle?

1CO 13:8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. 9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.

Maybe it's because the "perfect" language hasn't come yet, like scripture leads me to believe. Maybe 'your spirit's language is like your fingerprint, unique to you only for communication to God only.

10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.


Just countering you 'maybes' of doubt with my 'maybes' with faith.

Not responding from here to last paragraph of your 'too long' post. But what I've shared still answer your lack of understanding things as I do.

It's like Mark and Luke, having HEARD the stories of Paul being bitten by a poisonous snake ADDED things according to SECOND hand information as if it were actually a PART of intended understanding. And LOOK at the 'cults' that have been formed on the words of these two concerning 'handling snakes' and 'drinking poison'. Look how their words have been used to create FALSE traditions.
Let me just answer with a quote from a book I'm reading; "many deceived groups have come from those who based their beliefs on experiences in conflict with scripture.. Under the guidance of such attitudes, fear becomes our teacher. But why aren't those same individuals afraid of belonging to the doctrinally stable camps that are powerless."

When Bill Johnson says "powerless" he doesn't mean you don't have the baptism for a holy spirit. You just don't have the one from The Holy Spirit which comes with tongues. You have some power with basic salvation like all fundamentals who keep the bible and don't deny His name.

REV 3:8 "'I know your works. Behold, I have set before you an open door, which no one is able to shut; I know that you have but little power, and yet you have kept my word and have not denied my name.

When it comes to POWER, to get more you must believe for more. We have and you are still "unlearned" according to Paul and the words of your very own testimony IMO.
 
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Alithis

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I was hoping you would clarify that what you offered is the teaching of certain 'churches' that has absolutely NO scriptural validity. Thank you.

Wait a second. Carnal reasoning? I openly stated that it is MY 'firm belief' that I have experienced REBIRTH. What I DIDN'T do is agree with YOUR understanding of being 'Baptized in the Holy Ghost'. Nor do I accept terms such as 'slain in the Spirit'. And it is NOT from a 'carnal perspective' that I reject such inane teachings, it is from a Spiritual and BIBLICAL perspective that I DO so.

Now, I have YET to accuse anyone who speaks in tongues of NOT having 'grace'. But your words above would be an outright insinuation that since I don't accept nor practice speaking in tongues is an indication that I have YET to be 'born again'. And in this I insist upon correction. See how YOUR church has BRAINWASHED you into 'false understanding'? Teaching you that 'speaking in tongues' is an outward sign of being 'born in Spirit'. NO PLACE in the Bible are we offered that those that are 'born again' MUST speak in gibberish as a SIGN of their rebirth. That is utter fallacy and you tread upon VERY unstable ground when you make such accusation. Beware.

The 'tongues' spoken in Acts, those that followed the Holy Ghost being delivered, were LANGUAGES. The words explain in detail that, at the time, there were people from many different nations present on the street. And they were HEARING the speakers in THEIR OWN language down the very dialect of their villages. Only SOME insisted that what they heard was 'gibberish'. Many of the rest UNDERSTOOD exactly what was being spoken in THEIR OWN LANGUAGES.

So I guess there really ARE those that have been led to believe that the REST of 'Christianity' is LOST because of their refusal to accept YOUR beliefs. And this is EXACTLY why Paul wrote what he wrote to those in Corinth that were more concerned with PERSONAL edification than that which pertained to the 'Body'. For personal edification is ONLY able to separate rather than unify the Body.

And always remember: "God is NOT the author of confusion but of peace as in all the churches of the Saints". So if God is NOT the 'author of confusion', WHO IS?

Blessings,

MEC
i must laugh .. that which is clearly in scripture , mow has no scriptural validity ...?? really .. ?? sorry ,im not going to take your word for that ..but i will and do take Gods word .
so if we sum it up .. your word or Gods - Gods wins .
the promises in regard to the Holy Spirit and ALL the promises of God are true and faithful .
just becaseu you cannot comprehend how that is so and in what form they manifest because you have not experienced it does not and cannot ever annul them ..
 
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Biblicist

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The book of Acts makes it perfectly CLEAR that the tongues spoken at Pentecost were NOT 'gibberish'.

No Pentecostal who is worth his salt would ever challenge the view that when the 120 were praising God that they (or at least many) were enabled by the Spirit to speak in the various languages of those who were present. There is certainly no indication that when the Spirit was speaking through the disciples that he was doing so in an angelic tongue where the crowd were supposedly each given an interpretation.

But, and I do say but, this was with the unique and unrepeatable Day of Pentecost where we have the inauguration of the Church! Now when we go to the other three occurrences of tongues in Acts, such as with Acts 10-44-46; 19:1-6 and most likely with Acts 8:18 we see no evidence of tongues being spoken in known human languages. If they had then Peter definitely would have mentioned this to the Jerusalem Council and Luke definitely would have recorded this as well. All that Peter tells us is that the Cornelius along with his family and friends received the Holy Spirit just as the 120 did on the Day of Pentecost.

So we are now compelled to recognise that these two (three?) post-Pentecost occurrences of tongues followed the normal pattern where Paul says in 1Cor 14:2 “For anyone who speaks in a tonguedoes not speak to people but to God. Indeed, no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit”, where we are further told in 1Cor 13:1 where Paul (and we) can speak in human and angelic tongues.

The Greek word (μυστήρια) “mysteries” could be deemed to be problematic where the text does not say if the content of what the Spirit says are mysteries or if the operation of tongues itself is the mystery. Thankfully we have the Day of Pentecost in Acts 2:11 where we are told that the disciples were “declaring the wonders of God” where this type of corporate (congregational) praise was directed to God and not to man. Paul also complements Acts 2 in 1 Cor 14:16 where he tells us that when we pray/sing in the Spirit during our corporate/congregational meetings, that we are “praising God in the Spirit” and most importantly that the Spirit is speaking to the Father and not to man.

The description of tongues on the Day of Pentecost is extremely helpful as we are told that the content of tongues (at least within the context of an assembly), that they are words of praise which is also consistent with 1Cor 14:16. Most importantly it shows that tongues were not intended to be used as some form of evangelistic tool which is why Peter had to “save the day” by presenting an evangelistic message in Aramaic.


Moving outside of the congregational setting, Paul tells us in;
Rom 8:26-27
“In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us through wordless groans. And he who searches our hearts knows the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for God’s people in accordance with the will of God”.

1 Cor 14:14-15
“For if I pray in a tongue, my s/Spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. What is the outcome then? I will pray with the s/Spirit and I will pray with the mind also; I will sing with the s/Spirit and I will sing with the mind also”.

Eph 6:18
“With all prayer and petition pray at all times in the Spirit, and with this in view, be on the alert with all perseverance and petition for all the saint and pray on my behalf, that utterance may be given to me in the opening of my mouth, to make known with boldness the mystery of the gospel”

Jude 1:20
“But you, beloved, building yourselves up on your most holy faith, praying in the Holy Spirit”​


There is NO indication in the ENTIRE Bible that there are ANY OTHER 'form' of tongues offered by God. Every USE of the term 'tongues' is in reference to LANGUAGES.
This is unquestionably incorrect.

Click to expand and click to close

Adapted from BibleWorks 7 ----------

GK 1185 glōssa


UBS Lexicon
1300
γλωσσα, ης, f - tongue; language; utterance

Louw-Nida Lexicon8.21
γλωσσα, ης, f - 'tongue.' ἡ γλωσσα μικρὸ μέλοςν ἐστίν 'the tongue is a small member of the body' Jas 3.5. Though in Jas 3.5 the tongue is referred to as a part of the body, it is used essentially as a symbol for speech, and since in some languages the tongue is not regarded as an organ of speech, but simply as a part of the mouth, it may be necessary to change the expression to read 'the mouth is a small member of the body' or 'speaking is only a small part of one's life.' It is obviously not the tongue as an organ which corrupts the whole person, but the capacity for speech which has such a corrupting effect.

Friberg Lexicon
5515
γλωσσα, ης, ἡ tongue; (1) literally, the organ of speech and taste tongue (MK 7.33); figuratively, as a means of verbal communication tongue, language (AC 2.11); (2) by metonymy tribe, people, or nation that speaks a common language (RV 5.9); (3) as a religious technical term for glossalalia tongues(-speaking), understood variously to be unintelligible ecstatic utterance (1C 14.2), heavenly language (1C 13.1), or foreign languages not learned through natural means by the speaker (AC 2.4); (4) as the shape of fire forked flames (AC 2.3)

Liddell-Scott Lexicon
9015
γλωσσα
γλωσσα, Att. γλωττα, ης, ἡ , the tongue, Hom., etc.

2. the tongue, as the organ of speech, γλώσσης χάριν through love of talking, Hes., Aesch.; ἀπὸ γλώσσης by word of mouth, Hdt., Thuc.; οὐκ ἀπὸ γλώσσης not by word of mouth, not from mere hearsay, Aesch.; σὀ, ου κατὰ γλωσσαν Soph.; ἱέναι γλωσσης to let loose one's tongue, speak without restraint, Id.; pl.,κερτομίοις γλωσσα, i.e. with blasphemies, Id.:-for βους επι. γλώσση, v. βους.
II. a tongue, language, Hom., Hdt., etc.
III. the tongue or mouthpiece of a pipe, Aeschin. (Deriv. unknown.)

Gingrich Lexicon
1361 γλωσσα

γλωσσα, ης, ἡ
` tongue1. lit as an organ of speech

And IF there WERE such a thing as a 'voice of angels', (Spiritual language), it would be THE SAME no matter WHO spoke it. It would NOT BE GIBBERISH that varies according to the one producing it. EVERYONE that spoke in this 'unknown tongue' would be speaking the SAME 'voice of angels' or (Spiritual Language).
You’re quite right. Pauls use of the plural ‘tongues’ [Greek glossa which refers primarily to the physical organ of the tongue] is being applied to both human and angelic tongues where he did not say ‘human tongues’ + ‘angelic tongues’.

One can ONLY speak in tongues as The Spirit give utterance.

Well said! As every Born Again believer has the Holy Spirit residing within and as “the spirits of prophets are subject to prophets” (1Co 14:32) and that Paul tells us to “pray in the Spirit at all times (Eph 6:18) then we may pray in the Spirit whenever we so choose.

Acts 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
(See above.)
 
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Imagican

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Look guys, if someone says that doing a particular thing is useless, uses a number of different examples of JUST how useless doing that thing is, isn't it a pretty clear interpretation that the person is doing what they are capable of to DISCOURAGE that particular thing being DONE?

And not ONCE has a single one of you addressed the definition Paul offered concerning tongues: "Tongues are FOR A SIGN". He doesn't mention MORE than one sort of tongues. He says CLEARLY: Tongues are FOR A SIGN. And then adds, not to them that BELIEVE, but to them that BELIEVE not.

Certainly there is no TRUE sign possible for a non believer to hear someone speaking in gibberish. So being offered that there MUST be an interpreter PLAINLY points to the FACT that the tongues being referenced are LANGUAGES. Languages that, if the hearer doesn't understand, there MUST be an interpreter.

You would ask, if the power is the ability for one to understand what the other was speaking why need an interpreter? EXACTLY. If you NEED an interpreter YOU'RE not TRULY speaking in the tongues referenced in the Bible. If you NEED an interpreter, you are NOT speaking as the Spirit gives utterance, you're speaking of your OWN accord. You are MIMICKING what you have witnessed OTHER doing.

There is NO logical reason for tongues that ONLY edify the individual when Paul admonishes us to seek edification of the BODY.

So, if you NEED an interpreter, if you are seeking PERSONAL edification or obtaining it through your action, if you are mumbling in gibberish that is NOT a 'language', if a woman or women are mumbling this gibberish in the 'church', if one than one person is mumbling this gibberish at the same time, if the gibberish offers NO edification to the Body, isn't it perfectly obvious that what is being mumbled is NOT 'tongues' as the Spirit gives utterance.

There is NO 'spiritual language' as some insist. NO SUCH THING. Not according to the Bible.

When Paul uses the analogy: Though I speak in the voice of............. voice is not LANGUAGE. Voice is merely the MEANS to make NOISE with one's THROAT. And it's not meant to be literal. It's an analogy. Like saying, though I can fly through the air and make gold from lead, if it's done without charity, spiritually it has NO validity. It's MEANINGLESS so far as the Spirit is concerned.

NO WHERE in the bible are we instructed that there is a LANGUAGE of ANGELS. Every instance where an angel has EVER communicated with anyone throughout the ENTIRE BIBLE, it was in THEIR LANGUAGE. VOICE is NOT 'language'. It is the PHYSICAL manipulation of AIR through one's VOICE BOX that makes SOUND. It is NOT 'language'. TONGUES are languages.

I have witnessed what you folks call tongues on MANY MANY MANY occasion. It is utterly EERIE to me. I get the same FEELING listening to those speaking GIBBERISH that I get when listening to EVIL music.

And I have PERSONALLY witnessed MEN speaking in some DEMONIC language on more than one occasion. A language that I KNOW was no HUMAN language and KNEW this instantly upon HEARING it muttered.

Those that FLOP around on the ground, mumble in incoherent gibberish, bark like dogs and go into convulsions.............Have YOU ever witnessed a VOODOO celebration? Ever actually SEEN those that profess to be DEMON possessed? They often MUMBLE in incoherent GIBBERISH. Go into uncontrollable convulsions. Their physical appearance actually CHANGES, (their faces LITERALLY take on a DIFFERENT persona).

If what you folks propose to be 'tongues' were the tongues offered in the Bible then the ENTIRE BODY would 'speak in tongues'. Yet only a handful of 'churches' or PARTS of the Body practice it. Get it: PRACTICE it. It is LEARNED behavior in MOST instances. And it only stands to reason if a person is a part of a 'group' and seeks their approval, they are going to FOLLOW as they are TAUGHT.

It is SATAN that seeks to influence men to PERSONAL edification. The Holy Spirit seeks to influence men to offer edification to the BODY. And as I previously mentioned, I KNOW for a FACT that there IS some sort of demonic 'gibberish' or sounds that MIMIC language that those possessed SPEAK. Most likely it is done for the same reason that many demonic things are done: to ridicule or MOCK that which is TRUTH.

Decently and IN ORDER. If you are speaking gibberish in a manner that has NO ORDER, that is CONFUSING, that has NO meaning, sounds INDECENT or IS indecent, then you are NOT speaking in the tongues referred to in the Bible. That is EXACTLY why Paul wrote to the Corinthians. To give them the RULES of 'true tongues' and to expound upon the FACT that if what one mutters has NO meaning or understanding, it is like SPEAKING to the AIR. It has NO valid benefit.

If the gibberish referred to as 'tongues' were the tongues mentioned in the Bible, they wouldn't have COMPLETELY disappeared for eighteen hundred years and if revived, they would have been revived for ALL of the Body, not merely the handful of groups that insist that their gibberish is 'tongues'.

Once again, EVER witnessed a voodoo rite or celebration? The people participating are OFTEN 'taken over by spirits' and begin to mumble incoherently. The sounds being so similar to those professing to speak in tongues that I can discern NO DIFFERENCE. They FLOP around and go into convulsions JUST like those that I have witnessed that profess to speak in tongues and be SLAIN by the Spirit.

Would God REALLY have His followers MIMIC the followers of VOODOO or Satan? NO Biblical reference to such behavior. Other than prophets and apostles warning us NOT to take part in the worship or service of 'other gods'.

I once confronted a group being led by a guy that insisted upon speaking in tongues in EVERY group meeting. At one point in our conversation, he blurts out, "I was a Satanist for years. And Satan has his own 'tongues'. And if Satan has his own 'tongues', then I KNOW God has His own tongues too". Eventually it was revealed that this guy was having elicit sex with member of the congregation, BOTH sexes, doing drugs and stealing money from the congregation. Now days he's selling plasma in order to buy crack.

Self edification in the very words you speak in defense of speaking gibberish and calling it tongues. Professing outwardly that YOU think that speaking in gibberish somehow makes YOU 'special'. Separating YOURSELVES from the REST of the Body claiming that the REASON that 'they' have NO POWER is their LACK of believe in gibberish being tongues and practicing it.

No guys, it's not ME that has blinded myself from the TRUTH. It's those that have allowed themselves to be convinced that speaking in gibberish is some sort of 'language of God or angels'. If that were TRULY the case, then ALL that love God and have been 'born again' would practice speaking in gibberish. For 'tongues' were ONLY possible AS the Spirit gives utterance. And the Spirit would NOT discriminate. It would offer the SAME GIFTS to ALL parts of the Body. Yet there is not a single 'mainstream denomination' that accepts the practice. And why NOW. Why would tongues have ceased for hundreds upon hundreds upon hundreds of years and then show up just a tad over a hundred years ago? Why wouldn't there have been those 'speaking in tongues' for all the hundreds of years between the apostles and NOW?

And TRUE prophecy has ended as well, (the foretelling of the FUTURE). Not a single book has been added to the Bible since Revelation. That was ENOUGH and upon it's recording, Prophecy CEASED. True prophecy that is. For we have certainly seen our share of FALSE prophets and false prophecy.......

And as Paul stated, if there are any among you that profess to be even the least bit spiritual, let them confess that the words he offered ARE the commandments of God. But if a man would choose to be ignorant, LET HIM remain so.

I have done what I am able to explain the TRUTH of Paul's words and added some of my own personal experience. Take it for what it's worth. NO doubt in my mind or heart whatsoever that there are always going to be those that refuse to accept the TRUTH. For they will allow their OWN personal edification to get in the way of The Spirits ability to deliver the TRUTH.

2 Thessalonians 2 (KJV)
1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,

2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.

3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.

5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?

6 And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time.

7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.

8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:

9 Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,

10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.

11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:

12 That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.

13 But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth:

14 Whereunto he called you by our gospel, to the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.

15 Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.

16 Now our Lord Jesus Christ himself, and God, even our Father, which hath loved us, and hath given us everlasting consolation and good hope through grace,

17 Comfort your hearts, and stablish you in every good word and work.

Blessings,

MEC
 
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Imagican

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And just look at how far you are truly willing to STRETCH:

Rom 8:26-27
“In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us through wordless groans. And he who searches our hearts knows the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for God’s people in accordance with the will of God”.

wordLESS 'groans'.

This says not ONE WORD about 'tongues' or anything of the sort. But look how far you'd stretch in order to try and MAKE it sound like this is in reference to tongues. WORDLESS.

So, what is it? The gibberish you're speaking is NOT an actual language? Just incoherent SOUNDS that cannot be understood?

For you see, you can't have it both ways. It's either some form of language or it's NOT. If it's incoherent gibberish then it serves no TRUE purpose. If it is an actual SPIRITUAL language then the verses quoted above are OBVIOUSLY NOT in reference to 'tongues'. For WORDLESS cannot be in reference to a LANGUAGE. And it says GROANINGS, not SPEECH.

Just another example of the misinterpretation those offer that insist that speaking in gibberish is speaking in the 'tongues' referenced in the Bible.

Blessings,

MEC
 
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Biblicist

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And just look at how far you are truly willing to STRETCH:
Sadly, for someone such as yourself who claims to be an "authourity" on the subject of Pneumatology, all I can say is that you seem to be more than just a little confused and bewildered as your replies in most part seem to make little if any sense.

PS: I noticed that you have not as yet replied to my post 43.
 
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Biblicist

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Tongues were FOR A SIGN, not to them that believe, but to them that BELIEVE NOT.

Blessings,

MEC
If you read Paul's intent with uninterpreted tongues being a "negative" sign to the unconverted then it will make sense.
 
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Biblicist

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Tongues were FOR A SIGN, not to them that believe, but to them that BELIEVE NOT.

Blessings,

MEC
To give you a bit of an idea as to the material that you will need to catch up with, I have included a portion of Thiselton's material.

Pages 1122-23 & 1127 omitted due to “fair copying” requirements. Greek words changed into English.

......................................

The First Epistle to the Corinthians, Anthony C. Thiselton (2000) pages 1125-26

(2) B. C. Johanson treats the first part of the verse as a rhetorical question posed not initially by Paul but initially at Corinth.228 In effect, v. 21 expresses a view held by some at Corinth, which Paul corrects in vv. 22-23: (a) large numbers of commentators express perplexity about the respective role of unbelievers and believers in relation to tongues; (b) semion may be used in either “a positive sense” or “a negative sense”; (c) the quotation from Isa 28:11-12 presents difficulties, although Origen’s testimony to an earlier form in Aquila should not be ignored; (d) “unintelligible tongues will be ineffective in causing ‘This people to listen to the Lord’”; (e) certain supposed solutions put forward by A. T. Robertson and A. Plummer and by O. P Robertson contain flaws.229

Johanson’s next claim is crucial, (f) In the context of the rhetorical structure the role of as a sign for should be expressed “in terms of function. . . . Function is indicated by eis semeion. . . ”230 At this point, however, Johanson introduces “a new solution,” which is problematic, although the thesis that the words already constitute an earlier maxim had been proposed by Sweet.231 Johanson suggests that we may understand semeion in a positive sense in v. 22a, but that “to do so we would have to attribute the assertions in v. 22 to someone other than Paul.” This is partly indicated by coots, so then, but within the frame of a rhetorical question: “Are tongues, then, meant as a sign not for believers but for unbelievers... ?”232 The absurdity of what some of the “glossolalists” at Corinth had apparently believed or argued emerges in Paul’s comments in vv. 23-25: “Then comes his swift rebuttal in vv. 23-25, showing that for the non-Christian tongues are madness, while it is rather prophecy that convicts the heart.”233 Paul expounds his critique in terms of the “childishness” of the “glossolalist” view which is in question, which in turn alludes back to his critique in 1:10-4:21, especially in relation to teleios, (2:6) and vp7nog (3:1; cf. also 13:10-11; 14:29). A “sophist-glossolalist” group were probably using tongues as a sign that “God was among them.”234

In our view, Paul’s appeal to the experience of making those who do not share glossolalia feel “alien” among aliens, like the exiled to whom Isaiah refers, provides sufficient explanation of v. 21 without resort to Johanson’s hypothesis. Our explanation coheres with the points made under (3) and (4) below. However, it has the merit of consistency and plausibility. Moreover, if any (Cont...)

________________________________________
Footnotes:

228. Johanson, “Tongues, A Sign for Unbelievers? A Structural and Exegetical Study of 1 Cor 14:20-25,” 180-203
229. Ibid., 180-86.
230. Ibid., 190.
231. Sweet, “A Sign for Unbelievers: Paul’s Attitude to Glossolalia,” 240-47. He argues, following E. E. Ellis, that the theme of Isa 28:11-12 was drawn from an early Christian polemic against the unbelief of Jews, and that this may have entered the Corinthian congregation to defend the status of tongues as a sign. Paul turns this argument on its head. Williams favors Sweet’s argument (Tongues of the Spirit, 41, n. 23).
232. Johanson, “Tongues, A Sign for Unbelievers”? 193.
233. Ibid., 194.
234. Ibid., 195-201; quotations from 200.

_______________________________________

parallels whatever are permitted between Corinth and phenomena today, no doubt glossolalia is indeed promoted in some circles today as a sign of God’s “power” ministry to reach outsiders as well as authenticate the tongue-speakers.235 Further, deep in the origins of the Pentecostal movement, and reemphasized today, tongues are seen as “a bond of love” as well as a “fullness of divine power,” awakening faith “like a bell.”236 The exegetical and hermeneutical problem is whether this narrative experience has any close relationship with the exegesis of 1 Corinthians 12-14.

(3) C. K. Barrett understands sign in the negative sense, namely, as a sign of judgment: “When they are not met with faith (cf. Heb 4:2) tongues serve to harden and thus condemn the unbeliever (cf. verses 23f.) [although] they will at least not offend a Christian assembly that understands what is going on” (his italics).237 The first part of Barrett’s claim coheres well with Paul’s argument. However, his entire argument elsewhere in this chapter seems to imply that speaking in tongues within the assembled church community has more negative than positive consequences for “the other,” whether “the other” is a visiting unbeliever or an “ordinary” or “uninitiated” Christian. Hence only the first part of this suggestion is entirely satisfactory.

(4) A number of research articles, e.g., by Grudem (1979), Lanier (1991), and Smit (1994), as well as work by Rengstorf (1965; Eng. 1971) and Horn (1992), stress the effect of the sign as serving as a sign of judgment upon those who are unbelievers: “His [Paul’s] point is that speaking in tongues not only does not open up access into the mysteries of God for the apistos, but actually bars this.”238 Grudem concludes that tongues without interpretation are a sign to unbelievers of God’s judgment and displeasure, whereas prophecy ministers to the experience of God’s presence and blessing.239 Lanier similarly argues that Paul follows on logically from the condemnatory force of Isa 28:11-12 to argue for the judgmental significance and hence damning effect of tongues

_______________________________________
Footnotes:

235. Sources relating to Toronto Airport Church and The Association of Vineyard Churches include, e.g., Guy Chevreau, Catch the Fire: The Toronto Blessing (London: Marshall Pickering,
1993), esp. 27; Bill Randier, Weighed and Found Wanting (Cambridge: St Matthew Publications,1994), 119; John Wimber, “Association of Vineyard Churches Notice of Withdrawal from the Toronto Airport Vineyard,” December 13, 1995; David White, “The Toronto Blessing — Report for Open Distribution” (York: St. Michael le Belfrey Church, 1995); Sue Hope, “The Fruit of Toronto,” Anglicans for Renewal 70 (1997); W. Boulton, The Impact of Toronto (Crowborough: Monarch, 1995); more critically, Martyn Percy, Words, Wonder and Power (London: SPCK, 1996); S. E. Porter and P. J. Richter, The Toronto BlessingOr Is It? (London: Darton, Longman & Todd, 1995); D. Martin and P. Mullen (ed.), Strange Gifts (Oxford: Blackwell, 1984).

236. D. T. Irvin, “Drawing All Together in One Bond of Love,” 40-41; cf. R. Stronstad, “Trends in Pentecostal Hermeneutics”; J. R. Goff, Fields White unto Harvest: Charles F. Parham and the Missionary Origins of Pentecostalism (Fayetteville, Ark.: University of Arkansas Press, 1988).
237. Barrett, First Epistle, 323.
238. K. Rengstorf, “semion,” TDNT, 8:259; cf. 258-60, and for the whole lexicographical survey, 200-269.
239. Grudem, “1 Cor 14:20-25: Prophecy and Tongues as Signs of God’s Attitude,” 381-96.
 
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"tongues were a sign to them that did not believe ".. umm yeh , so that now they would believe, some folks have some repenting of unbelief to do
That should really read as "Tongues were a negative sign to the unbeliever..."

In 1Cor 14 Paul spents a fair amount of time addressing the problem of uninterpreted tongues within the congregational meeting as this can end up hardening the unbeliever and cessationist to the Gospel. Over the decades I have frequently come across this type of thing.
 
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No Pentecostal who is worth his salt would ever challenge the view that when the 120 were praising God that they (or at least many) were enabled by the Spirit to speak in the various languages of those who were present. There is certainly no indication that when the Spirit was speaking through the disciples that he was doing so in an angelic tongue where the crowd were supposedly each given an interpretation.
Thank goodness I'm a Charismatic and not a Pentecostal then, because I have a differing POV comment here. Hope that's OK. :)

Tradition has taught that these 120 were all at someones residential house. Uh that's a pretty big house for a bunch of poor 'out of work' evangelists. OK, someone rich who was a Christian invited them all over to their mansion to celebrate PENTECOST. But there's another POV here. Granted I got it from the Spirit IMO, IMO, IMHO. The word for house is Oikos. And the house of God is also Oikos.

MAT 12:4 How he entered into the house/oikos of God,
MAT 21:13 And said unto them, It is written, My house/oikos shall be called the house of prayer;


And since it was the day of Pentecost, what house would you expect the disciples and Jews from everywhere else, to be in celebrating????? How about the house/Oikos of GOD? It was pretty big right. And different groups could be congregated together and yet separated greatly.

ACT 2:2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house/oikos where they were sitting.

So, what 'tongue' might they have all received FIRST when the Spirit came UPON them? Why not the tongue for their born again holy spirit? And why couldn't it have been a language that was unintelligible to all the other Jews who were AT THIS SAME HOUSE/OIKOS and first hearing what? Not languages they understood, but "NOISE/SOUND/PHONE". And guess what this 'noise/sound' may be translated as? BESTIAL OR ARTIFICIAL!!!! Or, as a 'tongue talker' I like to think, "angelic/heavenly" and the "unlearned" like to call it 'gibberish/babbel'.

5456 phone: a tone (articulate, bestial or artificial); by impl. an address (for any purpose), saying or language

After hearing this bestial/artificial sounding "sound/noise" what did these Jews celebrating Pentecost a little ways off in this great big HOUSE/TEMPLE/OIKOS then do?

ACT 2:5 Now there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men from every nation under heaven.
6 And at this sound the multitude came together, and they were bewildered, because each one heard them speaking in his own language.


NOW after they "came together" with the disciples they 'then' hear the disciples speaking not in the 'noise' language of their spirit, but they are manifesting the charisma "gift of tongues" from The Holy Spirit which is in the visitor's own languages, and the disciples are no longer speaking in the prayer tongue of 'their holy spirit'.

As I said earlier, no one ever taught me this. And since you seem to be the 'biblicist' with an apparently big library of 'smart' books. :oldthumbsup: I'd like your opinion. Is there any reason that what I've shared could not be a reasonable rendering? Don't just check with your head/books, also listen to the sSpirit. :idea:

The description of tongues on the Day of Pentecost is extremely helpful as we are told that the content of tongues (at least within the context of an assembly), that they are words of praise which is also consistent with 1Cor 14:16. Most importantly it shows that tongues were not intended to be used as some form of evangelistic tool which is why Peter had to “save the day” by presenting an evangelistic message in Aramaic.
Not 'a tool'? I'd disagree. What brought this great big crowd of unsaved and VERY RELIGIOUS people together?

Well said! As every Born Again believer has the Holy Spirit residing within and as “the spirits of prophets are subject to prophets” (1Co 14:32) and that Paul tells us to “pray in the Spirit at all times (Eph 6:18) then we may pray in the Spirit whenever we so choose.
(See above.)
MY issue here is the fact that one believes it is The Holy Spirit praying when I don't. Paul said "his spirit prays" and bibles correctly don't capitalize spirit. Why? Then they wrongly capitalize h and s over 50 times in the NT, according to EW Bullinger in his book 'Word Studies on the Holy Spirit'. Not sure if we've had this conversation before or not. Also, why would The Spirit pray 'to God'. I though The Holy Spirit was God. Anyway, my thoughts.
 
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Thank goodness I'm a Charismatic and not a Pentecostal then, because I have a differing POV comment here. Hope that's OK. :)
You’re forgiven!!

Even though I am theologically a Pentecostal, where I connect our ability to speak in tongues with the Baptism in the Holy Spirit (but we do not need to speak in tongues to be saved); my theology is essentially built on the work of scholarship that is primarily charismatic where some could be deemed to be “open-but-cautious” with a number who are Pentecostal but not classic-Pentecostal (as the TV advert says here in Australia – simplezzz!).

Tradition has taught that these 120 were all at someones residential house. Uh that's a pretty big house for a bunch of poor 'out of work' evangelists.
Even though as you say, tradition has it that the 120 were meeting in a house or the ‘upper room’; this could have been possible as they were apparently hold-up in the temple precinct which apparently contained numerous wealthy occupants along with their more sizable homes where a wealthy benefactor could have offered his support. The more popular view appears to be that the 120 were meeting each day in one of the temple courts where on the Day of Pentecost this would have allowed the crowd to observe what was happening.

There is a third view which suggests that the 120 were meeting in some large benefactors home when the Spirit fell upon them, where they then moved from the home to the nearby Temple which would have allowed the crowd to observe what was happening. This is certainly acknowledged as being a possibility but it lacks the general support of the second view where they were meeting in one of the Temple courts.

This means that any of the three are possible, where the options begin with one of the Temple courts, a large home or finally a large home that was adjacent to the Temple precinct.

Craig Keener addresses these issues in his work on Acts and the following is a brief example of where he looks at some of the pro’s and con’s of the temple viewpoint and how the Greek word οἰκία oikia could mean either house or temple.


Acts: An Exegetical Commentary, Craic C. Keener (2012) pg.796-99

“As suggested above, the “entire house” mentioned here sounds neither like the temple (though it was a “house”). The term “house” cannot decisively settle the question of the location; the temple or tabernacle is a (specially designated) house in Luke 6:4 and 19:46 (quoting Isa 56) and Acts 7:46-47; but the term also appears in contrast to the temple (Luke 1:23; Acts 2:46; 5:42), and Luke’s emphasis on house meetings makes that sense more likely (Acts 2:46; 5:42; 20:20). One could think that the wind “filled” the “whole household” (18:8), except that Luke gives no indication of that metaphor for the church in the immediate context.

Perhaps Luke deliberately leaves the location ambiguous because he emphasizes both the importance of the temple early in Acts and of the house meetings (cf. 2:46 and 5:42 for both), Especially if the original venue was a house, the ambiguity may allow his probable temple allusion to the wind’s “filling the house” here, as smoke filled God’s “house” in Isa 6:4 (cf. the fire of Act 2:3); cf. also Ezek 43:5). The cloud of God’s glory filled the tent in Exod 40:34-35 and God’s “house” in 1 Kgs 8:10-11 at their dedications – appropriate to a reappropriation of the temple for God’s kingdom here. But while the noise filled the house in Acts 2:3, those inside it were filled with the Spirit in 2:4 perhaps making them like the temple of old”.

ACT 2:2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house/oikos where they were sitting.

So, what 'tongue' might they have all received FIRST when the Spirit came UPON them? Why not the tongue for their born again holy spirit? And why couldn't it have been a language that was unintelligible to all the other Jews who were AT THIS SAME HOUSE/OIKOS and first hearing what? Not languages they understood, but "NOISE/SOUND/PHONE". And guess what this 'noise/sound' may be translated as? BESTIAL OR ARTIFICIAL!!!! Or, as a 'tongue talker' I like to think, "angelic/heavenly" and the "unlearned" like to call it 'gibberish/babbel'.

5456 phone: a tone (articulate, bestial or artificial); by impl. an address (for any purpose), saying or language

After hearing this bestial/artificial sounding "sound/noise" what did these Jews celebrating Pentecost a little ways off in this great big HOUSE/TEMPLE/OIKOS then do?
Yes, contrary to what we see within many of our English translations in 1 Cor 14:7-11 where they often employ ‘languages’ for the Greek φωνή phone which is particularly unhelpful in 14:10 where it should read “There are, perhaps, a great many kinds (genos, cf. 12:10)of sounds (phonos) in the world, and no kind is without meaning”. In these passages most of our English translations tend to fail to convey Paul’s connection with tongues as apparently not being so much a language where they are ‘language-like’.

In the past couple of decades there has been a lot of scholarly interest with Rom 8:26 “…but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words”. Now we know that Paul is referring to praying in the Spirit (tongues) in Rom 8:26 but is there a direct correlation between ‘groanings’ and the ‘sounds’ of 1Cor 14:10? Over the past few years I have moved over to this position.

NOW after they "came together" with the disciples they 'then' hear the disciples speaking not in the 'noise' language of their spirit, but they are manifesting the charisma "gift of tongues" from The Holy Spirit which is in the visitor's own languages, and the disciples are no longer speaking in the prayer tongue of 'their holy spirit'.

As I said earlier, no one ever taught me this. And since you seem to be the 'biblicist' with an apparently big library of 'smart' books. :oldthumbsup: I'd like your opinion. Is there any reason that what I've shared could not be a reasonable rendering? Don't just check with your head/books, also listen to the sSpirit. :idea:
I liked the “big library of ‘smart books’”. My interest with trying to formalise a Pneumatic theology started back in 1992 but things began to peak maybe five years ago when I obtained a casual administrative position at a local State University. This had the advantage (beside that of the salary) of giving me access to an amazing amount of scholarly material with the benefit that they also have some connections with a few theological resources as well.

Even though I currently have 14 paper copies on First Corinthians where they address every known viewpoint on a given passage, at a pinch, if I had to suggest two books, they would be with Anthony C. Thiseltons work on First Corinthians (2000) and with Craig Keeners four volume work on Acts (2012). My reasons for suggesting these two works is that the authors address each of the popular opinions on a given passage which helps us to expand our understanding. Thiselton released a second book on First Corinthians in 2005 which was less technical than his monumental 2000 book, but interestingly enough he changed his mind on a few points in response to some work that came out after he released his first book. Then he produced another book on the History of the teachings of the Holy Spirit in 2013 which had a few more changes. It would be safe to say that if anyone were to purchase his three books then you would have a summary of the best theological views that exist in our day.

And now to return to what we’ve been discussing . . .

As for Acts 2:2 “there came from heaven a noise like a violent rushing wind” this would not be referring to the sound of the many ‘angelic voices’ where they were all praising God at once; where it was most likely a theophany where the ‘sound’ would be symbolising the arrival of the Holy Spirit.

As to what the crowd would have heard when the 120 were praising God in the Spirit, if it were to have been in a large room where the crowd was on the outside, then they would have probably presumed that there were a number of people speaking in the various languages of the Empire, but most of them would have noticed the strong rustic Galilean accents which certainly would have gained their attention. If it were in the Temple precinct (which is the view that I lean toward), other than with the rustic Galilean accents that the crowed would have heard then it would have sounded little different to a large contemporary Full Gospel congregation where the sound is essentially harmonious. If the sound of Acts 2:2 was indeed a theophany where there was an intended allusion to the arrival of the Holy Spirit, then this strange loud noise certainly would have grabbed the attention of the crowd; then to hear these rustic Galileans speaking disjointedly in their respective languages, then the whole thing would have been understandably perplexing for them.

Not 'a tool'? I'd disagree. What brought this great big crowd of unsaved and VERY RELIGIOUS people together?
My point here is that when the 120 were praising God in the Holy Spirit, that it was not as popularly believed an evangelistic message. The event (along with the "sounds like a rushing wind" and possibly with the "tongues of fire") that this would undoubtedly served to gain the attention of the crowd; but in spite of these incredible occurrences the 'day would have been lost' if Peter had not provided an evangelistic message in Armamaic.

MY issue here is the fact that one believes it is The Holy Spirit praying when I don't. Paul said "his spirit prays" and bibles correctly don't capitalize spirit. Why? Then they wrongly capitalize h and s over 50 times in the NT, according to EW Bullinger in his book 'Word Studies on the Holy Spirit'. Not sure if we've had this conversation before or not. Also, why would The Spirit pray 'to God'. I though The Holy Spirit was God. Anyway, my thoughts.
Okay, I guess that by now that you’ve come to realise that your perspective probably wouldn’t be all that well received by the churches in your area! Unfortunately your perspective is more than just a bit problematic where I doubt if even the more hardened rationalist cessationist would be all that comfortable with your position. Even though I am thoroughly convinced from within the testimony of the Scriptures alone, that when we pray in the Spirit (tongues) that it is the Holy Spirit who is interceding on our behalf to the Father; from memory, I cannot ever recall any scholar or commentator who has even entertained the idea that it is our supposed human spirit that is speaking to God.

Having said this, I would not be all that surprised to hear where your view could be promoted from within the wof movement as they tend to place a lot of weight (and power) on the supposed human spirit but the various teachings that are unique to the wof movement tends to relegate their views to the fringe of Biblical theology or even completely outside of theology completely. You may have notice my use of italics for supposed human spirit. As I am a dichotomist (or more properly a functional-dichotomist), this means that I do not accept that we have a separate human spirit. My position is that man is comprised of a body and a soul; where I break from the dichotomist position to where I become a ‘functional’ dichotomist, is that I recognise that the Scriptures certainly differentiate between our spiritual soul and when the Scriptures speak of our ‘spirit’ that this is referring to our temperament, character and personality where I can also add in our demeanour, attitudes and presence of mind.

With particular reference to 1Cor 14:14-15

For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. What is the outcome then? I will pray with the spirit and I will pray with the mind also; I will sing with the spirit and I will sing with the mind also.​

This problematic passage was addressed by Gordon D. Fee back in 1987 (The First Epistle to the Corinthians) where he proposed that we should see Paul’s use of Pneuma as “S/spirit”. I think it was Fee who later coined the phrase “the S/spirit of me” where it allows for how we are able to have the Holy Spirit (‘S’) who resides within us (“spirit”) praying to the Father.

Even though Paul is undoubtedly referring to the Holy Spirit in 14:14-15, he also applies pneuma in another sense:

Col 2:5 For even though I am absent in body, nevertheless I am with you in spirit, rejoicing to see your good discipline and the stability of your faith in Christ.​

We know that Paul’s supposed human spirit was not outside of his body or that the Spirit of God that was within Paul had travelled to the Colossian church where it seems to speak of his attitude or thoughts being present.

. . . this has been a very interesting post for me.
 
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I connect our ability to speak in tongues with the Baptism in the Holy Spirit (but we do not need to speak in tongues to be saved);
Agreed :oldthumbsup: Loved your simplezzz comment also.

This means that any of the three are possible, where the options begin with one of the Temple courts, a large home or finally a large home that was adjacent to the Temple precinct.
Then I'll go with what I think...I think...I humbly think was The hHoly sSpirit and pick "Temple Courts". BTW I never read Fee, but have heard of him. And I never have seen anyone else use hH or sS except for me. But when I do so, I do so believing that my born again holy spirit is now equal to the spirit Jesus was born with which was holy IMO. And yet Jesus never received The Holy Spirit until he was 30. And then it was never said to be IN him.

MAT 12:18 "Behold, my servant whom I have chosen, my beloved with whom my soul is well pleased. I will put my Spirit upon him,
MAR 1:10 And when he came up out of the water, immediately he saw the heavens opened and the Spirit descending upon him like a dove;
LUK 4:18 "The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he has anointed me to preach good news to the poor.
JOH 1:33 And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him,


In the past couple of decades there has been a lot of scholarly interest with Rom 8:26 “…but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words”. Now we know that Paul is referring to praying in the Spirit (tongues) in Rom 8:26 but is there a direct correlation between ‘groanings’ and the ‘sounds’ of 1Cor 14:10? Over the past few years I have moved over to this position.
Concerning the scholarly interest of 8:26 I'd like to share from E.W. Bullinger 1837-1913 and his book 'Word Studies on the Holy Spirit'. The bold is mine.

Rom. 8:16 Now we come to the change in the usage of pneuma in this chapter. It is most marked and unmistakable, because in this verse we have pneuma twice. The first time it is the Holy Spirit who is spoken of as the One who, having been the Giver of this wondrous gift of the pneuma, or new nature, now witnesses with it and through it; speaking to us, and communicating with us, through it.

“The Pneuma (or Spirit) Himself beareth witness with our pneuma, that we are God’s children.”

Notwithstanding that both words have the article, the context makes the sentence perfectly clear: – the Holy Spirit witnesses with the new nature which has been spoken of in the previous context. The first article is demonstrating, showing that the Holy Spirit is the subject as the giver; whereas the second is grammatical, identifying it with what has been mentioned before, as a gift.
The A.V. Of 1611 had "s" in both cases; but the current Editions, and R.V., have the first "S," and the second "s."

ROM 8:23 “WE… which have the firstfruits of the pneuma.”
This may be the Genitive of origin, and means the first-fruit which the Holy Spirit gives, as the giver; or it may be the Genitive of apposition and mean "the first-fruit, which is the pneuma, or the new nature.”
The Holy Spirit, the great Giver, having given us this great gift, we may look on it as the first-fruit of all that he will do for us, including even the redemption of our body from the grave.
The A.V. of 1611 had “s”. But the current Editions with R.V. have “S”.


The following foreword excerpt is from newer printings of Bullinger's book ‘Word Studies on the Holy Spirit’ and it was written by Warren W. Wiersbe.

“EW Bullinger was born in 1837 in England. He was a descendent of the great Swiss Reformer, Johann Bullinger. He trained for Anglican Church ministry at King’s College, London where he showed skill in biblical languages. The Archbishop of Cantebury recognized this skill by granting him an honorary Doctor of Divinity degree in 1881. Serious students of the Bible remember him as one who dared to search into God’s truth and follow it wherever it led him.” The emphasis in recent years on the doctrine of the Holy Spirit has helped to produce a great number of books on that subject. Some of these books are immature and will not last. Their theology (to borrow a phrase from P.T. Forsyth) is "like a bad photograph – over-exposed and under-developed." But a few books have made a definite contribution to the subject and will surely last.”

IOW this book is still in print...for good reasons. I highly recommend it to you for 'your smart book library'. I'm glad I didn't have to apologize for that earlier comment. It is truly rare, for me anyway, to find someone who is Spirit baptized, speaks in tongues who is truly a 'talking head' more so than just an 'air head' who still gets things done supernaturally but their theology is like 'a screen door on a submarine'.

My interest with trying to formalise a Pneumatic theology started back in 1992
And you have impressed me with what you produced with 'smart book' quotes so quickly in response to my post.

Okay, I guess that by now that you’ve come to realise that your perspective probably wouldn’t be all that well received by the churches in your area!
Believing The Holy Spirit is not IN us only isn't received in My AREA???? Oh NO! My perspective has offended a much larger area than that....that's for www. sure. But I don't mind being alone in the wilderness....of the nominal church as well as the high and barren plains of Western Kansas. BTW As pertaining to Kansas it's where they say "There's a pretty girl behind 'every' TREE." It only took me 23 years to find 'A' tree...and marry her.

I was never really in the WOF movement. But I was slain by the Spirit under the hand of papa Hagen. It was a life changer.

As I am a dichotomist (or more properly a functional-dichotomist), this means that I do not accept that we have a separate human spirit. My position is that man is comprised of a body and a soul; where I break from the dichotomist position to where I become a ‘functional’ dichotomist, is that I recognise that the Scriptures certainly differentiate between our spiritual soul and when the Scriptures speak of our ‘spirit’ that this is referring to our temperament, character and personality where I can also add in our demeanour, attitudes and presence of mind.
Gotta say dichotomists always baffle me. Tri just makes so much sense to me and my theology. So, when Jesus said; "into thy hands I commend my spirit" do you think he should have said 'our Spirit'?

. . . this has been a very interesting post for me.
Me too, but a bit long I gotta say.

Wow something just happened and I thought I lost this whole thing. I'm just posting now.
Yep it changed a bunch of stuff. I've been editing since I posted. And a chunk is still totally gone....like me...Good Nite.
 
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TheBarrd

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Did anyone ever connect what happened on the Day of Pentecost to what God did at the Tower of Babel?
Before Babel, everyone spoke one language...but God confused their tongues, and they could no longer communicate.
On the Day of Pentecost, everyone present heard what was being said in their own language.
Just a thought...
 
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Did anyone ever connect what happened on the Day of Pentecost to what God did at the Tower of Babel?
Before Babel, everyone spoke one language...but God confused their tongues, and they could no longer communicate.
On the Day of Pentecost, everyone present heard what was being said in their own language.
Just a thought...
Over the past maybe 30 years many scholars and commentators have briefly raised this issue and undoubtedly they will until the Lord returns. Even though it is interesting, where the use of tongues on the Day of Pentecost could possibly be seen as a 'reversal of the confusion of languages at Babel', as there is not really all that much information to go on it tends to remain as a bit of a couriosity point only.

From my perspective, as the crowd were confused by what they heard, it seems to have a parallel with Babel in that on both occassions, in spite of the crowd being able to hear words in their own languages, that the languages being spoken were still unclear to both groups. Now if the 120 had of provided an evangelistic message instead of words of praise that they were directing toward the Father, then the 'reversal of Babel' viewpoint would have some merit.
 
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Agreed :oldthumbsup: Loved your simplezzz comment also.
Yes and it does appear that our cessationist friends have withdrawn for a time where I hope that they wlll take a good look at the material that we've been supplying.

Concerning the scholarly interest of 8:26 I'd like to share from E.W. Bullinger 1837-1913 and his book 'Word Studies on the Holy Spirit'. The bold is mine.

Rom. 8:16 Now we come to the change in the usage of pneuma in this chapter. It is most marked and unmistakable, because in this verse we have pneuma twice. The first time it is the Holy Spirit who is spoken of as the One who, having been the Giver of this wondrous gift of the pneuma, or new nature, now witnesses with it and through it; speaking to us, and communicating with us, through it.

“The Pneuma (or Spirit) Himself beareth witness with our pneuma, that we are God’s children.”

Notwithstanding that both words have the article, the context makes the sentence perfectly clear: – the Holy Spirit witnesses with the new nature which has been spoken of in the previous context. The first article is demonstrating, showing that the Holy Spirit is the subject as the giver; whereas the second is grammatical, identifying it with what has been mentioned before, as a gift.
The A.V. Of 1611 had "s" in both cases; but the current Editions, and R.V., have the first "S," and the second "s."

ROM 8:23 “WE… which have the firstfruits of the pneuma.”
This may be the Genitive of origin, and means the first-fruit which the Holy Spirit gives, as the giver; or it may be the Genitive of apposition and mean "the first-fruit, which is the pneuma, or the new nature.”
The Holy Spirit, the great Giver, having given us this great gift, we may look on it as the first-fruit of all that he will do for us, including even the redemption of our body from the grave.
The A.V. of 1611 had “s”. But the current Editions with R.V. have “S”.


The following foreword excerpt .....................................
I will have to hold to the accepted position regarding the use of S/spirit especially as it relates to Rom 8:26 as there is simply far too much Biblical and lexical evidence to change.

The Tyndale NT (1534) and the Bishops NT (1595) certainly both have Spirit in the lower case as does the KJV (1611) but not the KJV (1769). The Bishops NT seems to only use spirit and not Spirit when it refers to the Holy Spirit throughout the NT. The Tyndale appears to be the same where maybe this was symptomatic of the period where they seemed to know and experience little of the Holy Spirit in their meetings. It's interesting how the revisers of the KJV (1769) moved away from this earlier 1611 convention to where they have attempted to capitlise S/spirit appropriately.


Greek and English Interlinear New Testament (NASB/NIV) Zondervan (2008)
Rom 8:2627 (Lexical numbers are from the GK system, not Strong's)

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When it comes to an lexical study of the Holy Spirit, even though the afore mentioned books by Keener and Thiselton are indespensable, I probably need to add in a third book by Fee titled God's Empowering Presence which has becom a virtual standard for any study on the Holy Spirit, both from a lexical and a theological perspective.
Fee applied 7 pages to Rom 8:26 and due to copyright limitations I will only provide one page of his material which is contained in the 'spoiler'. I enjoy using this BBcode option as it allows a long post to look reasonably short, or where people can easily pass the material by if it doesn't interest them.
God's Empowering Presence: The Holy Spirit in the Letters of Paul, Gordon D. Fee (1996) pgs.612-13

2. The present sentences, in fact, correspond remarkably with what Paul elsewhere calls “praying with/in the Spirit” (1 Cor 14:14-15; Eph 6:18).326 These correspondences occur at two crucial points: (a) the Spirit is the subject of the verb “interceding,” that is, the Spirit himself is seen as praying from within us and (b) the persons involved do not understand what the Spirit is saying—or not saying, as the case may be.

When we turn to Paul’s other notations about prayer, especially private prayer, besides the prayer reports of various kinds (which describe intelligible praying), we have especially the description of his own prayer life in 1 Cor 14:14-15, that it is of two kinds: praying with his mind and praying with his S/spirit. Although this text is too allusive for us to know for sure what “praying with his mind” meant, the context suggests that it does not mean “prayer without words,” that is, inaudible, but prayer in which he could understand the words that he spoke because they basically generated from within his own mind. As we noted in our discussion of that text, “praying in the Spirit” in that context can refer only to the praying in tongues about which he speaks in vv. 2, 19, and 28—private, articulated but “inarticulate” with regard to his mind (that is, the Spirit prays and the mind itself is unfruitful in this case), and “to himself and to God.” He further affirms that he does this more than all of them (v. 18), and wishes such prayer for all of them (v. 5) precisely because it edifies the one so praying (v. 4)—but not in the assembly, of course (v. 19), because there it does not edify the community as a whole (v. 4).
Even though there is still some mystery here—for all of us—several features about that second form of praying are noteworthy for our present purposes: (a) On the one hand, Paul himself distinguishes between the uninterpreted tongue in private prayer and that which is public and therefore needs interpretation (v. 19). (b) On the other hand, Paul indicates (14:14-15) that private “praying in tongues” requires no interpretation; rather, one’s prayer is “by him/herself” and “to God” (vv. 2, 28); thus in such praying “the mind” does not enter into the prayer as such (v. 13). (c) Such prayer is specifically said to be “by the Spirit” (v. 2); and in vv. 14-15 he says “my S/spirit prays,” i.e., the Spirit prays in tongues through me. (d) In such prayer by the Spirit one speaks “mysteries” to God. (e) That such praying is “vocalized” almost goes without saying; how does one “speak” in a “tongue” and not do so “aloud”? And (f) even though such prayer does not proceed by way of the mind, Paul is nonetheless adamant that he will engage in it (vv. 14- 15) and that those so praying are “edified” (v. 4). Finally, since this is the only form of prayer in Paul’s letters that is specifically said to be 7cv8ujicm (“by the Spirit”), and since Paul wishes that all would so pray (v. 5), it is arguable, although not certain, that this is also what he meant when he urged the Ephesians to “pray ἐν πνεύματι” (6:18, q.v.).

The significant areas of correspondence are (a) that the Spirit prays within the believer, and (b) does so with “words” that are not understood by the person praying.327 The other possible correspondence, of course, is between “speaking mysteries by the Spirit” in 1 Cor 14:2 and “the Spirit interceding with inarticulate groanings” in our present passage.328
Footnotes:
326 Cf. Godet 321, who, even though he rejects glossolalia here, has recognized how analogous these two passages are; so also Kasemann, although he misses Paul’s discussion by taking “prayer in the Spirit” into the public arena, which Paul roundly rejects (1 Cor 14:19).
327 In rejecting this view, Obeng (“Spirit Intercession,” 363) seems to miss the significance of the data in 1 Corinthians 14 by a wide
328 Byrne, ‘Sons,' 112-13, suggests that the Pauline analogy is to be found in 1 Cor 2:6-16. But his “parallels” are doubtful at best.

Greek and English Interlinear New Testament (NASB/NIV) Zondervan (2008)
Rom 8:2627 (Lexical numbers are from the GK system, not Strong's)


Click to expand & click to close

The Tyndale NT (1534) and the Bishops NT (1595) both have Spirit in the lower case as does the KJV (1611) but not the KJV (1769).

The Bishops NT seems to only use spirit and not Spirit when it refers to the Holy Spirit throughout the NT. The Tyndale appears to be the same where maybe this was symptomatic of the period where they new and experienced little of the Holy Spirit in their meetings.

Sourced from BibleWorks 9:

NIV Romans 8:26 In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us through wordless groans.

CEB Romans 8:26 In the same way, the Spirit comes to help our weakness. We don't know what we should pray, but the Spirit himself pleads our case with unexpressed groans.

CJB Romans 8:26 Similarly, the Spirit helps us in our weakness; for we don't know how to pray the way we should. But the Spirit himself pleads on our behalf with groanings too deep for words;

CSB Romans 8:26 In the same way the Spirit also joins to help in our weakness, because we do not know what to pray for as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with unspoken groanings.

NIV/84 Romans 8:26 In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groans that words cannot express.

NASB Romans 8:26 And in the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words;

ESV Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness. For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words.

KJG Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

NET Romans 8:26 In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness, for we do not know how we should pray, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with inexpressible groanings.

NLT Romans 8:26 And the Holy Spirit helps us in our weakness. For example, we don't know what God wants us to pray for. But the Holy Spirit prays for us with groanings that cannot be expressed in words.

NRS Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we ought, but that very Spirit intercedes with sighs too deep for words.

Bishops NT (1595) Romans 8:26 Lykewyse, the spirite also helpeth our infirmities. For we knowe not what to desire as we ought: but ye spirite maketh great intercession for vs, with gronynges, which can not be expressed.

RSV Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we ought, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with sighs too deep for words.

Tyndale NT (1534) Romans 8:26 Lyke wyse the sprite also helpeth oure infirmities. For we knowe not what to desyre as we ought: but the sprete maketh intercession mightely for vs with gronynges which cannot be expressid with tonge.

GNT Romans 8:26 Ὡσαύτως δὲ καὶ τὸ πνεῦμα συναντιλαμβάνεται τῇ ἀσθενείᾳ ἡμῶν· τὸ γὰρ τί προσευξώμεθα καθὸ δεῖ οὐκ οἴδαμεν, ἀλλὰ αὐτὸ τὸ πνεῦμα ὑπερεντυγχάνει στεναγμοῖς ἀλαλήτοις·

NKJ Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helps in our weaknesses. For we do not know what we should pray for as we ought, but the Spirit Himself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

KJV Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

IOW this book is still in print...for good reasons. I highly recommend it to you for 'your smart book library'. I'm glad I didn't have to apologize for that earlier comment. It is truly rare, for me anyway, to find someone who is Spirit baptized, speaks in tongues who is truly a 'talking head' more so than just an 'air head' who still gets things done supernaturally but their theology is like 'a screen door on a submarine'.
Unfortunately . . . I tend to only source commentaries and lexicons that were produced since the 80's where I am now increasingly looking for material from 2000 onwards. The reason for this is probably two-fold in that as contemporary scholarship has far surpassed that of old and where the newer better commentaries are highly peer-reviewed, this allows me to encounter the 'best-of-the-best' where I am able to consider all the options so to speak.

As I also use BibleWorks 9, this program provides me with about six Greek lexicons and upward of about 30 Bible translations so this gives me the benefit of being able to obtain a lot of raw data regarding a specific Greek word. Of course the free www.biblehub.com is a superb resource as well.

And you have impressed me with what you produced with 'smart book' quotes so quickly in response to my post.
Thankyou. For my paper editions of my commentaries I use ABBYY FineReader 12 Pro to scan them into an electronic format and I use the free Logos utility 'Shibboleth' which allows me to correctly format any Greek (and Hebrew) words that can often be lost in transition. So all I have to do is to pick an appropriate article, scan it and check any Greek references and paste it into the forum - it's easy once someone shows you what tools are availble.

Gotta say dichotomists always baffle me. Tri just makes so much sense to me and my theology. So, when Jesus said; "into thy hands I commend my spirit" do you think he should have said 'our Spirit'?
For me, both the Dichotomist and Trichotomist positions had me confused for years where I tended to switch sides every so often. Now that I am a functional-Dichotomist the world now makes sense for me!
 
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