verysincere
Exegete/Linguist
If that is the case, then there would not be a single word in the Hebrew/Greek text that is used for multiple meanings.
Are you prepared to make that claim?
I have a wall of hermeneutics and exegesis textbooks and I can assure you that even very few fundamentalists institutions pretend that there is a legitimate Law of First Mention.
It is a good example of TRADITION seeping into the Church and then gets mistaken for actual Biblical revelation and/or wise hermeneutical procedures. Even common sense would negate such a law because it false presumes chronological and authorial precedence. I could just as easily establish a "Law of Last Mention" -- and claim that because revelation is progressive, the BEST use of a word is the final occurrence when its full meaning has finally been disclosed. (Doesn't that sound pious?)
Indeed, it is a good example of the kind of popular fallacies which get started in those little unaccredited Bible schools built around the personality of some TV preacher or popular IFCA pastor with a big bus ministry that gives him big attendance numbers. I sometimes had home-schooled undergrads who would come into my theology courses with various "pseudo-pop-theology" backgrounds filled with such "rules" and "laws". I'd ask them and discover that their parents had gotten "textbooks" from some TV ministry or a local parochial school. The authors were usually unknown and untrained. I've heard that the Internet has made this sort of "training" even more problematic in recent years.
Very sad, actually.
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