First of all, there's no shortage of "commentators" (those who write commentaries) who believe that it is only IMPUTED "foolishness" and "sins/guiltiness" that is being spoken of here. Again, the reproaches of God fell upon the One being spoken of, but He was genuinely not guilty of any such reproaches Himself. Anyhow, whether or not the entire Psalm literally speaks of Christ or not, portions of it most certainly do. In what I already cited, the One speaking explains why He has become an alien unto HIS MOTHER'S CHILDREN when He says "for" or "because". IOW, He gives the reasons for such alienation. Also, there are certainly other parts of this Psalm which point directly to Jesus Christ. Here are a couple of them, as attested by the New Testament scriptures:
Psalm 69:4
"THEY THAT HATE ME WITHOUT A CAUSE are more than the hairs of mine head: they that would destroy me, being mine enemies wrongfully, are mighty: then I restored that which I took not away."
Compared with:
John 15:23-25
"He that hateth me hateth my Father also. If I had not done among them the works which none other man did, they had not had sin: but now have they both seen and hated both me and my Father. BUT THIS COMETH TO PASS, THAT THE WORD MIGHT BE FULFILLED THAT IS WRITTEN IN THEIR LAW, THEY HATED ME WITHOUT A CAUSE."
There's also this:
Psalm 69:21
"They gave me also gall for my meat; and in my thirst they gave me vinegar to drink."
Compared to:
Matthew 27:34
"THEY GAVE HIM VINEGAR TO DRINK MINGLED WITH GALL: and when he had tasted thereof, he would not drink."
