Hi,
The above would be all well and good if you can provide
Hebraic/Jewish sources to prove that 'Adonai' is used as a metaphor in Deut 33:2. An "ask the Rabbi" site or Jewish site may gladly help you out in the same way that a non Muslim can ask an "Islamic scholar". You can start with this website
here.
The website you referred to is about the sacredness of the name of G-d and the prohibition of misusing G-d's name. That is good and applies to Islam and Muslims as well.
Like Secundulus, you have difficulty understanding what I meant by mataphors. I am not saying that G-d = Moses or Muhammad, which is outright blasphemy. What I am saying is that while Moses (and Muhammad) were significant in receiving the 'fiery law' in Sinai and Paran, it was G-d who actually wills and effected the event.
If you are a fan of soccer, you will probably understand why Maradona claimed it was the 'Hand of God' that won the cup for Argentina. That is metaphor.
You may want to ask why "The Lord came from Sinai and shone forth from Seir to them; He appeared from Mount Paran...."
1. What is the significance of mentioning Sinai, Seir and Mount Paran?
Why Mount Paran? I thought Moses receive teh Torah at Sinai?
2. Please show me where Jews would object if I say "the Lord came from Sinai..." to imply that Moses receive the Torah from G-d at Sinai.
Again for "tens of thousand" show me the
Hebrew in Deut 33:2 which categorically states "tens of thousands", please since the closer translation into English is "myriad". Please see
here for the source.
As I mentioned earlier, the Septuagint and many Bible translate that as 'ten thousands'.
If I use "ten thousand" it would not mean I am wrong as the number is also considered as "myriad". More importantly, I use "ten thousands" because from a historical context, the "ten thousand" is more significant to the actual event that happened in Paran.
And as for the "fiery law" if you go to a Jewish website you will read about how the Torah (LAW) :
The Torah was revealed to God's chosen people and thus one needs to seek them in order to rightly understand what the Torah and Tanakh says. I have yet to meet one Jew who states that Muhammed is alluded to in the Torah mainly because the Shuls teach their students Biblical Hebrew. Those are the best sources for us to discuss whether or not Deut. 33:2 infers that it's talking about Muhammed.
Please read the Tanakh commentary by Rashi on Devarim 33:
http://www.chabad.org/library/article_cdo/aid/9997/showrashi/true/jewish/Chapter-33.htm
Notice:
1. Jews believe that the children of Ishmael (who dwelled in Paran) were given the Torah (except that according to Rashi they did not accept them).
You should agree with me that some of the verses (although of past tense) may have a prophetic meaning and you can see both Jews and Christians accepting that when arguing over the 'prophecies' of Christ from the OT.
2. If I take Rashi's commentary of Devarim 33:2 correctly , the
"fiery law" was also given to the Ishmaelites at Mount Paran as it was given to Moses at Sinai.
From a historical point of view, what "fiery law" from G-d was given to the Arabs at Paran (whom Rashi mentioned the Ishmaelites resided)?
Rashi mentioned that G-d gave the Torah to the Ishmaelites but they did not want to accept it. From a historical pov, Jews do not overtly try to convert the Arabs to Judaism and there was no records of Arabs resisting the spread of Judaism in the Hijaz.
I can only conclude that this "fiery law" given to the Ishmaelites at Mount Paran was a divine law separate from the Torah and it was so significant that it has to be included in Deuteronomy 33:2.
[/font]So unless I see a link to an Orthodox Jewish/Jewish website saying that the "Adonai" in that verse pertains to a descendant of Ishmael, I shall leave you guys to it.
Already did. It surprised me as well that Jewish rabbi actually believe the children of Ishmaelites were given G-d's law.