In Van's original post that launched this discussion, we read . . .
Here are the four points of the TULIP, in John MacArthur's words, that I believe are unbiblical.
In the case of Unconditional election, you have the view in the Scripture that the people who are saved are saved because they were chosen by God apart from any merit of their own, apart from any condition.
This statement is completely unbiblical, James 2:5 tells us God chooses people based on their condition, those rich in faith, those that love God, and those who do not treasure the things of this world. Paul teaches a similar truth in 1 Corinthians 1:26-31. And again, Paul teaches that God chooses people in his day, just as God chose people who were faithful in Romans 11:3-6. John 3:16 says whoever believes in Him shall not perish.
James 2:5 allows no such interpretation unless we use only the KJV. Still, it would require you to infer your interpretation. You may do so, but you would be embracing an understanding of the text that is contrary to the translators of the NKJV, the Geneva, the NASB, the ASV, and the RSV.
James 2:5
5 Hearken, my beloved brethren, Hath not God chosen the poor of this world rich in faith, and heirs of the kingdom which he hath promised to them that love him? KJV
James 2:5
5 Listen, my beloved brethren: Has God not chosen the poor of this world to be rich in faith and heirs of the kingdom which He promised to those who love Him? NKJV
James 2:5
5 Listen, my beloved brethren: did not God choose the poor of this world to be rich in faith and heirs of the kingdom which He promised to those who love Him? NASB
James 2:5
5 Hearken, my beloved brethren; did not God choose them that are poor as to the world (to be) rich in faith, and heirs of the kingdom which he promised to them that love him? ASV
James 2:5
5 Listen, my beloved brethren. Has not God chosen those who are poor in the world to be rich in faith and heirs of the kingdom which he has promised to those who love him? RSV
Well, perhaps your assessment of 1 Corinthians 1:26-31 is more solid.
1 Cor 1:26-31
26 For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called:
27 But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty;
28 And base things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen, yea, and things which are not, to bring to nought things that are:
29 That no flesh should glory in his presence.
30 But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:
31 That, according as it is written, He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord. KJV
Well, I can't say that it is a more solid interpretation. In fact, the text teaches NOTHING regarding the faith, or the love of God held by those He chooses. Further, it should be noted that it does NOT say that there is a fundamental difference (relative to faith etc.) between the condition of the elect and the condition of the reprobate. The clear (and necessary) implication of the text is that there are some wise, mighty, noble, elect and there are some wise, mighty, noble, reprobate.
How about Romans 11:3-6 does it teach that God chose people who were faithful?
Rom 11:3-6
3 Lord, they have killed thy prophets, and digged down thine altars; and I am left alone, and they seek my life.
4 But what saith the answer of God unto him? I have reserved to myself seven thousand men, who have not bowed the knee to the image of Baal.
5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.
6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. KJV
Sorry but no. The text is intended to convey the truth that God is in control and determines, by election, who will follow Him (i.e., remain faithful to Him). Reject that interpretation if you will, but the notion that it teaches that God chose some BECAUSE they were faithful is fully unfounded. There is no language within the text that includes a cause-and-effect relationship intimating the basis upon which God selected some rather than others.
On to the next misleading claims.
. . . Did I say election is based ones ability or merit? Nope. Yet again you attribute this unbiblical position to me. You misrepresent my position 100% of the time and then say its my fault. Have you no respect for the truth? I said election is based on God crediting our faith as righteousness. I have said this perhaps 100 times. Yet do you present that as my position? Nope. LOL"
Please tell me what you, Mattlock73, do not understand?
Were the words "election is based upon ones ability or merit" used by Van? No. But, in Van's original post that launched this discussion, we read . . .
Here are the four points of the TULIP, in John MacArthur's words, that I believe are unbiblical.
In the case of Unconditional election, you have the view in the Scripture that the people who are saved are saved because they were chosen by God apart from any merit of their own, apart from any condition.
This statement is completely unbiblical, James 2:5 tells us God chooses people based on their condition, those rich in faith, those that love God, and those who do not treasure the things of this world. Paul teaches a similar truth in 1 Corinthians 1:26-31. And again, Paul teaches that God chooses people in his day, just as God chose people who were faithful in Romans 11:3-6. John 3:16 says whoever believes in Him shall not perish. [Emphasis Added]
If the word "condition" was used to try to support the position that God's choice was not based upon "ability or merit," then the attempt failed. To say that God chooses a man unto salvation, even in part, because the man DOES this (loves God) or DOESN'T do that (love the things of the world) is to base that selection upon "ability or merit,"
I said God gave us the capacity to have faith. If that is too complex an idea for you to understand, there is nothing I can say to make that more clear.
It would have been helpful if you were to provide the answer to the question when its asked rather than simply objecting that you have been adequately clear already. If the answer to the question is what you just said above, it doesn't seem like it would be too painful to provide that answer when asked.
Then: I said election is based on God crediting our faith as righteousness. If this is too complex an idea for you to understand, there is nothing I can say to make it more clear.
So . . . election is based upon crediting faith as righteousness. Logically and chronologically, this would seem to require the following sequence:
1st Step - a person has faith
2nd Step - God credits said faith as righteousness.
3rd Step - God then chooses the person.
And this choice exercised by God results in what exactly? The person was justified (made right before God) at step 2. It seems nonsensical. More explanation would be helpful.