I'm a little screwed up about whose who in the zoo. To the question . Is the devil a fallen angel. If so, where do you see that in scipture? Outside of the assumption that Eziekel and Isiah are talking about him in ch.28 & ch.14.
I don't know of any Scripture that *explicitly* states that the devil is a fallen angel. But such a belief is a reasonable conclusion drawn from various passages.
The Ezekiel and Isaiah passages in and of themselves are not good support for the belief. They are explicitly addressed to *earthly* rulers. There *may* be a double reference -- they may be likening those evil rulers to the devil -- but that is uncertain, and probably not worth considering if other passages did not lend tangential support.
2 Cor. 11:14 makes reference to "the devil" and "angel of light," but says that is a "disguise" or "masquerade" (lit. "transformation").
Matt. 25:41 gives fairly strong support in referring to the devil and "his" angels -- implying he is the leader of an angelic cohort.
Rev. 12:9 uses the same language, and also informs us that "satan," "the dragon," and "the serpent of old" (presumably from Gen. 3) are one and the same.
Also in that context (Rev. 12) we see celestial conflict between Michael and his army vs. "the dragon" and his, with the dragon losing and being "thrown down."
This is reminiscent of Luke 10:18, where Jesus said He saw (or "was watching") satan fall from Heaven like lightning.
It is also reminiscent of Dan. 10:13, where a celestial being appears to Daniel and recounts how he had been opposed for 21 days by the (celestial) ruler of Persia, until Michael, one of the high (celestial) rulers came to his aid.
In Job, we see "the satan" appearing among the "sons of God." In some places, the phrase, "sons of God" might constitute royalty, but in the context of Job, it appears to be some sort of celestial council. (see. 1 Ki. 22:19-23)
In Eph. 2:2 we see reference to the "ruler of the powers of the air." The language is somewhat reminiscent of the heavenly conflicts cited previously. The context suggests it refers to God's primary adversary, i.e. the devil. (The Eph. passage doesn't show him to be of angelic origin, but it is sort of interesting to see potential linkages to other passages.)
What did Jesus mean when he called satan a murder and liar from the beginning? Was He referring to the beginning before the fall or the beginning after the fall?
Since John is the one who quotes Him saying that, it probably means the same thing as in John 1 -- which is to say that he may not be dividing things that finely. All the early events recorded in Genesis could constitute "the beginning."
The devil was called a deceiver and murderer because, as we see in the Revelation passage, he was in some sense "the serpent" who deceived Eve and ultimately cause man to fall into mortality.
Either way if he fell or was created the way he is, God had to have planned it, right? I don't think God is one to be blind sided with the unexpected. Why then, was the devil created?
God knows the end from the beginning, so no, He never has to go,
"Oh, Me, I never saw THAT coming!" (Hyper-Arminian Open Theism notwithstanding)
As to why -- I guess if He thought it was any of our business, He'd have told us. As far as we can tell, He never did explain Himself to Job.