Is Jesus the second man?

judge

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Hi all,

I'm new here, so peace to you all! (I notice there are quite a few aussies here). I also notice there are christians here who don't have any problem with evolution (or perhaps I should say the 'common decscent' part).

Anyway, I have some problems reconciling it with some parts of the new testament, particularly Pauls teachings. So I am hoping in this discussion I may be able to better understand  the persoective of other Christians who differ from me on this point.

Maybe  I can best startr by asking some questions. ;)

1.Paul told his listeners in acts 17:26&nbsp; <SUP>26</SUP>From one man he made every nation of men, that they should inhabit the whole earth; and he determined the times set for them and the exact places where they should live.

How do you see this?

2. Following on the same lines Paul teaches in Romans 5:12-14 <SUP>12</SUP>Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned-- <SUP>13</SUP>for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. <SUP>14</SUP>Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come.


How did sin pass to all men if we are not all descended from one man?

What do we do with the doctrine of original sin? How would it be interpreted?

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3. Paul teaches in Corinthians 15:45-47, that The first man Adam became a living being"<SUP>[5]</SUP> ; the last Adam, a lifegiving spirit.<SUP> 46</SUP>The spiritual did not come first, but the natural, and after that the spiritual. <SUP>47</SUP>The first man was of the dust of the earth, the second man from heaven.

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How can there be a second man if there was no first?

How can there be a last adam if there was no Adam in the forst place?

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4. If one day science comes to the conclusion Adam did exist, do we return to previous understandings of these verses? (assuminf of course there is a new understanding.

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Thanks in advance, I appreciate all answers and am not looking to arguebut rather discuss

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David Gould

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In evolutionary terms, all humans have a common ancestor - one single individual.

A Christian response might be that this one individual was imbued with a soul by God, thus being the first man in a spiritual sense.

I do not see any conflict between that and the verses you are posting.

(By the way - I am an atheist. And an Australian :) )
 
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LightBearer

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Originally posted by Tinman
It may help if you're aware that "Adam" is Hebrew for "Man" or "Mankind", if you reread the verses substituting Mankind for Adam, things might make a bit more sense, especially if you think of Mankind as a species.

Even biblical scholars don't agree on whether Adam should be a common or proper name.


Does the Bible present Adam simply as an allegorical character representing all early mankind?

Jude 14: “The seventh one in line from Adam, Enoch, prophesied.” (Enoch was not the seventh in line from all early mankind.)

Luke 3:23-38: “Jesus himself, when he commenced his work, was about thirty years old, being the . . . son of David . . . son of Abraham . . . son of Adam.” (David and Abraham are well-known historical persons. So is it not reasonable to conclude that Adam was a real person?)

Gen. 5:3: “Adam lived on for a hundred and thirty years. Then he became father to a son in his likeness, in his image, and called his name Seth.” (Seth certainly was not fathered by all early men, nor did all early men father sons at 130 years of age.)
 
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