Wouldn't it be nice if that interpretation was valid. However - look again at Ephesians 1:5 in its proper setting.
Eph 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:
Eph 1:2 Grace [be] to you, and peace, from God our Father, and [from] the Lord Jesus Christ.
Eph 1:3 Blessed [be] the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly [places] in Christ:
Eph 1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
Eph 1:5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,
Eph 1:6 To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.
1 To whom is this addressed? The faithful in Christ Jesus, or some other group?
2 Does the passage say:
... a/ people are pre-destined to become faithful?
... b/ the faithful are pre-destined to become children of God through Christ Jesus?
3 Does the passage say:
a/ He has chosen us in him to be made holy?
b/ He has chosen us to be in him and made holy?
4 Which interpretation is in accord with the balance of the New Testament record:
a/ that God decided before the foundation of the world that those faithful to him would be made holy and adopted as sons.
b/ that God decided before the foundation of the world, who would be adopted as sons and made holy.
Defender - Much you ask for, but I will give a little for now, it being already 04:05 hrs here. (and there are only so many sunrises I care to see in a fortnight.)
OK - A fairly apt description of the concept of original sin: the idea is that we inherit the punishment due for Adam's sin, his sin has been (as though) genetically transmitted down through the generations. The concept is rejected -
even in the
Old Testament it is stated that a person will be held accountable
only for the sins he personally commits. (as you yourself have observed.)
What we do have is a propensity to be swayed and misled by our own desires (as it were, the will of a person's flesh), rather than being led by our will (as it were, the desire of the person's spirit.) That is, we inheret the ability to be tempted, and invariably fail to resist (at least once.)
Ah now - the matter of all sins being forgiven without price, that price being met in full by Christ Jesus . No works are necessary and no works can be entered into either to earn or to keep salvation.
Would you believe that I spent more than 20 years trying to reconcile with the balance of all other references, only two passages which seemed to support that concept?
Every other passage which had been presented as evidence in support of "no works" had been examined thoroughly and a mis-interpretation or mis-application shown to exist. (Sometimes it was a VERY lengthy process, taking all of about 5 seconds.)
These passages though, had me stumped - and stumped for more than 20 years. Every they were presented (just about on a monthly basis) I would look at them - and there was no way to refute them: there had been no mis-representation, neither mis-application. Undeniably, the passages supported the concept of "grace and not works."
Nothing in the passages even vaguely points to the possibility that works are necessary - a distinct contrast with the overall theme of the New Testament. You can destroy EVERY argument brought in favour of the need for works with these passages. And they are the only passages that can be used to do so. (Or so it seemed)
If there had been only one passage, I might have been tempted to write it off as a stand-alone contradiction - but two passages aligned are scripture - there is no contradiction in scripture.
About 3 weeks ago, someone asked a question which was slightly different in form to the usual phrasing. And I discovered that for 20 years, I had consistently overlooked just three words in one of the passages:
Rom 3:21
But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; Even the righteousness of God [which is] by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past , through the forbearance of God; To declare, [I say], at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. Where [is] boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
The second of the passages is.
Eph 2:4 - 9
But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us, Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved
And hath raised [us] up together, and made [us] sit together in heavenly [places] in Christ Jesus: That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in [his] kindness toward us through Christ Jesus. For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast.
All very compelling, until one reads the rest:
And you [hath he quickened], who were dead in trespasses and sins;
Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:
That is simple enough - see if you can work out the answer using the procedure similar to the one I used above on the pre-destination thingy. (It's called .... a reading comprehension test.)