Porneia, sexual immorality and romantic love, committed love in marriage.

[GoldenKingGaze]

For century after century porneia in the new testament was translated as sexual immorality. But in the 20th century, romantic poetry and arts leaned towards porneia being love. Romatic love, unrequited love, love at first sight, free love. People moved by lust commit adultery and can't deny their feelings and falll in love with the other woman and leave the wife for the lover. There are stories true and fiction of men falling in love with their prostitute. A lover can be, or become first love. Ladies can be in love with their first love, lover for the rest of their life, despite getting married and having children with the second love.

Is it as simple as saying porneia is sexual immorality?

 

[Reluctant Theologian]

For century after century porneia in the new testament was translated as sexual immorality. But in the 20th century, romantic poetry and arts leaned towards porneia being love. Romatic love, unrequited love, love at first sight, free love. People moved by lust commit adultery and can't deny their feelings and falll in love with the other woman and leave the wife for the lover. There are stories true and fiction of men falling in love with their prostitute. A lover can be, or become first love. Ladies can be in love with their first love, lover for the rest of their life, despite getting married and having children with the second love.

Is it simple as saying porneia is sexual immorality?

It's helpful to first understand the original and the usage of the Greek word before assessing its meaning and proper translation in the NT.

Literally the word relates to prostitution (selling or buying sex); its usage widened in secular Greek literature already to any kind of extramarital or illicit sexual intercourse.

In the Greek LXX/70 translation of the Hebrew TNK/OT the word is used in the meaning of that initial Greek usage (sexual sins / sexual immorality) but also a lot in the sense of idolatry/unfaithfulness to God.

The NT virtually exclusively also uses the word in that literal sense of illicit sexual acts - for the definition of that the reference framework of the Apostles was Mosaic Law / Torah (Acts 15). All throughout Paul's letters he seems to assume those laws on marriage/sexuality apply to Gentile believers as well.

So to answer your question; yes ... but be careful then to also lookup the correction definition/description of what that entails (in TNK/OT). Some aspects/instances of sexual immorality became more outspoken/explicit in NT times. E.g. in TNK/OT sex is simply assumed to happen within marriage, but there is no literal ban with a death penalty for that outside marriage (only in the case of adultery) - when it happened the man was obliged to offer marriage to the woman, but in the NT this is more explicitly viewed as improper.

Adultery is a sub-form/type of sexual immorality.

Yeshua adds another dimension to all this. In the Sermon on the Mount He describes how improper thoughts/heart-action precedes actual physical sin. E.g. calling someone a fool can be the precursor to murder, and looking at someone else's wife with strong desire is the precursor to adultery .. So in that sense He calls just that look/heart-intent already adultery in the heart - already that is sinful, although still distinct from actual physical adultery of course.

 

[Michie]

AI overview:

Porneia

is a Greek word that translates to "sexual immorality" or "fornication" and refers to any form of illicit sexual activity. It is a broad term that can encompass prostitution, adultery, incest, and other forms of sexual misconduct or "sexual sin of any kind". The English word "pornography" is derived from this Greek term.

Specific meanings and uses of porneia

• General sexual immorality: It is a broad term for sexual relations outside of marriage.
• Prostitution: The word is related to the Greek porne, meaning "prostitute" or "harlot," and porneia can refer to prostitution or harlotry.
• Adultery: In some biblical passages, porneia is used to describe adultery, which is sexual intercourse with someone else's spouse.
• Incest: The New Testament uses porneia to describe an incestuous relationship in 1 Corinthians 5:1.
• Other sexual sin: It can also be used as a catch-all term for any sexual transgression, including fornication (premarital sex) and lewdness.

 

[peaceful-forest]

I haven't heard of porneia being used as romantic love.

I find it strange. It makes me wonder if this is a new tactic from Satan to blur the lines between love and sexual immorality?

 

[GoldenKingGaze]

It is not so new, things developed in the 20th century. Look at the arts. The sexual revolution, the Hippies, Cole Porter, Madonna...

 

[rebornfree]

I haven't heard of porneia being used as romantic love.

I find it strange. It makes me wonder if this is a new tactic from Satan to blur the lines between love and sexual immorality?

Totally agree. Are Jane Austen's novels porneia? I love Georgette Heyer's regency romances. No porneia in them other than a reference to some men being libertines but no detail given. Falling in love is not the same as lust.

 

[All Becomes New]

I'm in agreement with @Michie on this. Porneia is any kind of sexual immorality. That could be porn, or masturbation, or lust, or homosexuality, or adultery, or fornication. Anything that is not sex in the confines of a marriage between one man and one woman for one lifetime.

 

[Reluctant Theologian]

I'm in agreement with @Michie on this. Porneia is any kind of sexual immorality. That could be porn, or masturbation, or lust, or homosexuality, or adultery, or fornication. Anything that is not sex in the confines of a marriage between one man and one woman for one lifetime.

Any interpretation regarding the meaning of a word in the NT should come from linguistic analysis/understanding (including word usage) - I am curious as to why you think masturbation by definition should be included as neither the TNK/OT or NT mention that AFAIK. No judgement, just curious .. (and I'm not talking about anything related to addiction/porn/immoral fantasies etc.) I'm aware early interpreters frequently refer to the history of Onan from Genesis 38 but that's an entirely different issue.

 

[All Becomes New]

Any interpretation regarding the meaning of a word in the NT should come from linguistic analysis/understanding (including word usage) - I am curious as to why you think masturbation by definition should be included as neither the TNK/OT or NT mention that AFAIK. No judgement, just curious .. (and I'm not talking about anything related to addiction/porn/immoral fantasies etc.) I'm aware early interpreters frequently refer to the history of Onan from Genesis 38 but that's an entirely different issue.

The Bible doesn't mention Trans people either.