If we want a good picture of creation, as well, we can go to Proverbs 8:22-31
There, it tells us the watery deep came into existence. So, God created the heavens; He created the earth; He created the waters, and then we start from Genesis 1:2
The earth was formless and empty, and darkness covered the deep waters. And the Spirit of God was hovering over the surface of the waters.
It tells us that the watery deep came into existence, but it doesn't say when.
So, Genesis 1:1 actually is an event the precedes Genesis 1:2, when God began his work on the earth, and the writer records everything with earth as the focus, or vantage point, with everything relative to earth.
Reading Genesis 1:14-18 then, would be understood different to the opposing arguments, which flat earthers present.
The text doesn't actually say that verse 1 is an event.
Genesis 1:1-2 NRSV
[1] In the beginning when God created the heavens and the earth, [2] the earth was a formless void and darkness covered the face of the deep, while a wind from God swept over the face of the waters.
In the beginning when God created the heavens and the Earth...
Verse 1 is just an introductory statement.
It's like saying in the beginning when I rode my bike...
But it doesn't complete the event. It's just saying "when God did this..." And what's important is what comes next. Verse 1 itself is not an event.
In the beginning when I walked down the street...
It's an incomplete sentence. You need verse 2.
In the beginning when I walked down the street, it was raining outside.
In the beginning when God created the heavens into the Earth, the earth was formless...
The beginning is defined by God's action. Not by the material origins of the cosmos. The story is about God, it's not about the cosmos.
If I said, in the beginning when I walked down the street, it was raining outside, you wouldn't take that to mean that it instantly began raining the moment I walked outside.
Likewise, we don't assume that the Earth instantly came into existence the moment God began to create it.
That's an interpretive possibility, but the text doesn't mandate it.
And people have debated this for centuries. Both options are grammatically possible based on the Hebrew text.