Supreme God

[Reginald Taylor Jr]

John 14:6 KJV
[6] Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

Jesus Christ died on the cross and raised from the dead after 3 days being Supreme God to all.

 

[David Lamb]

John 14:6 KJV
[6] Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

Jesus Christ died on the cross and raised from the dead after 3 days being Supreme God to all.

Sorry Reginald, but what does: " after 3 days being Supreme God to all." mean? Jesus Christ is eternally God, according to John 1:1-3. He didn't just become supreme God for the three days between the crucifixion and the resurrection.

 

[com7fy8]

He didn't just become supreme God for the three days between the crucifixion and the resurrection.

How about "both", David?

Yes, Jesus was with our Father "before the world was," He says in John 17:5.

But as supreme ruler . . . as Lord of all . . . this came as we see in Philippians 2:5-11.

 

[ARBITER01]

Sorry Reginald, but what does: " after 3 days being Supreme God to all." mean? Jesus Christ is eternally God, according to John 1:1-3. He didn't just become supreme God for the three days between the crucifixion and the resurrection.

You're talking to a oneness Pentecostal. Do things make sense now?

 

[Reginald Taylor Jr]

Sorry Reginald, but what does: " after 3 days being Supreme God to all." mean? Jesus Christ is eternally God, according to John 1:1-3. He didn't just become supreme God for the three days between the crucifixion and the resurrection.

Supreme God , -Ruler giving justification ,victory

 

[eleos1954]

John 14:6 KJV
[6] Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

Jesus Christ died on the cross and raised from the dead after 3 days being Supreme God to all.

He has always been supreme God to all ... sin separates one from God ... through His blood there is a path back to Him.

 

[David Lamb]

How about "both", David?

Yes, Jesus was with our Father "before the world was," He says in John 17:5.

But as supreme ruler . . . as Lord of all . . . this came as we see in Philippians 2:5-11.

Certainly Philippians 2:5-11 talk of Jesus humbling Himself to come to earth from the glories of heaven, then after His crucifixion and resurrection, being exalted by God the Father. But there is no mention of Him becoming supreme God after the resurrection.

 

[David Lamb]

You're talking to a oneness Pentecostal. Do things make sense now?

Thanks. I mis-read your post at first as saying "You're talking as a oneness Pentecostal." Thankfully, I noticed before replying. I didn't realise I was responding before to a oneness Pentecostal.

 

[com7fy8]

But there is no mention of Him becoming supreme God after the resurrection.

He was already supreme, but He became Lord of all; and so Jesus became supreme as Lord by becoming Lord.

 

[David Lamb]

He was already supreme, but He became Lord of all; and so Jesus became supreme as Lord by becoming Lord.

Sorry, to me, that doesn't make sense. You begin by saying He was already supreme. You end by saying, "Jesus became supreme as Lord by becoming Lord." How could He be "already supreme" if He also needed to become supreme?

 

[com7fy8]

Sorry, to me, that doesn't make sense. You begin by saying He was already supreme. You end by saying, "Jesus became supreme as Lord by becoming Lord." How could He be "already supreme" if He also needed to become supreme?

Who He is always has been supreme, but He has not always been *functionally* supreme.

Maybe it is like how a baby son of the king is already royal. However, he is not royal and functioning as king, which comes after he has developed for the position.

 

[David Lamb]

Who He is always has been supreme, but He has not always been *functionally* supreme.

Maybe it is like how a baby son of the king is already royal. However, he is not royal and functioning as king, which comes after he has developed for the position.

No, I don't agree. The bible says that He is the same "yesterday, today and forever." Anyway, how could He have been supreme if that supremacy wasn't functional?

 

[com7fy8]

No, I don't agree. The bible says that He is the same "yesterday, today and forever." Anyway, how could He have been supreme if that supremacy wasn't functional?

He has been supreme, though He did not always have the position of Lord of all.

His character always has been supreme, but Jesus has not always ruled as known Lord of all.