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CoreyD

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Precisely. . .any moral choice man is unable to make means his will is not free in that regard.

If he cannot choose to give up his alcohol, his will is not free in that regard, and he does not have complete free will.

If he can give it up, his will is free in that regard.

If man cannot choose to be sinless, his will is not free in that regard, and he does not have complete free will.

No fallen man has complete free will. . .he has only limited free will
I don't understand this.
Are you saying a person who gives into weakness - thus making a choice to be immoral, makes all men the same, and therefore no man can choose not to practice sin?
 
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CoreyD

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Freedom is moral power. . .and addicts don't always have the moral power to overcome addiction. . .they are not morally free.
That is not true Clare.
Think about what you are saying.
Addicts can overcome addiction... and have.
Because some haven't, because of not taking the wise course, does not mean they can't.

Jesus said mankind was a slave to sin (Jn 8:34). . .slaves are not free.
You can understand this scripture correctly, if you want to.

You either believe Jesus, or you don't.
Yes, and he isn't saying what you said.
The Greek word is doing in regard to practicing.
Some translations can help with that. As well as the scriptures I supplied you with. Galatians 6:6, 16, 17
Why do you ignore them?
 
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CoreyD

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Please keep in mind that my comments about the "Will" are strictly in the moral/immoral context.

The definition of freewill in Greek that you have given above is an adjective, not a noun. It describes a certain type of action or choice that is uncoerced/voluntary.

Elsewhere, you identify a free will as a free agent. That term is describing a will in a state of equivocation between two masters and therefore is for all intents and purposes depicting an undecided soul in a state of equivocation ---> See doublemindedness, also understand why Jesus would say this ---> "You can't serve two masters".

Neither of these meanings are applicable to any description consistent with Adam being made with a free will. I can't actually comment on the scriptures you provided as 'proof' of a free will since the definitions of free will you provided are inconsistent. For the sake of clarity, you need to specify what the will is free from when you claim a free will.

The only coherent meaning of the term free will as a noun that I can see in scripture is a will qualified as free from sin. That would also be consistent with the free will that God gave Adam when he was created.
Thank you for taking the time to consider the OP, and respond to it.
Can I answer based on what you understand from, first of all...
Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor.​
The Bible says Adam was not deceived.​
Thus Adam acted on his own free will.​

Do you disagree?
 
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Aaron112

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The Bible says Adam was not deceived.Thus Adam acted on his own free will.
Do you disagree?
The Bible is the Breathed Word of The Magnificent Almighty Everlasting Truthful Real Creator of all things.

Men almost always oppose the Bible and are violently against the Creator (men oppose God).

hmmm...... who to trust ?

JESUS! HALLELUJAH FOREVER !
 
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Aaron112

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Did God create his intelligent children with free will?
Though many whether religious or non religious claim not, and argue against this, the answer is clearly yes.
Curious in a way. Looking at mankind and all the christendom and religions that act stupid and ungodly every day,

the answer may not be clear at all.
 
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Aaron112

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However, there is Jesus' statement that all men are slaves to sin (Jn 8:34). . .slaves are not free.
Do slaves of righteousness desire to escape from the government of YHVH's Kingdom/ Jesus ?
 
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childeye 2

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Thank you for taking the time to consider the OP, and respond to it.
Can I answer based on what you understand from, first of all...

The Bible says Adam was not deceived.​
Thus Adam acted on his own free will.​

Do you disagree?
Isaiah 53:6
All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.

I can't agree or disagree without you first qualifying what you mean by "his own free will". I can say with certainty we each have our own individual will just like Isaiah 53:6 shows above, but what is the will supposedly free from? We really need to qualify what the will is free from when we assert a free will, otherwise it's not a stable term to reason upon.

We need to acknowledge that there is a carnal will that seeks one's own comfort and avoids discomfort. The flesh is hardwired to like pleasure and dislike pain.

We also have to acknowledge that the context of 1 Timothy 2:14 is not about a will. It's about whether the man should have authority over the woman.

It looks to me like Paul is expressing his opinion that the woman should not usurp authority over the man based upon the reasoning that the man was made first (woman was made from a piece of the man) and also that the man was not the one deceived (in the garden).

I don't think this scripture can be used to validate that Adam or Eve in a state of innocence/ignorance were capable of avoiding the events set in motion by the serpent who is markedly described as the craftiest creature. If I am to assume that Eve's actions are more excusable because she at least was beguiled, it would be contradictory for Paul to say that the man who has no such excuse, should be in charge over the woman because he knew exactly what he was doing when he counted God as untrustworthy.

Not only that, we know that God told Adam his mistake was listening to the woman, but since I don't believe God is disparaging the female as unworthy to ever listen to, I think God is saying Adam should have trusted to his own judgment and not been so malleable to the woman.

As for who should be in charge, elsewhere in scripture Paul states that there is no Jew or gentile or male or female, for we are all one in Jesus Christ. With the understanding that the greatest is the one who serves the rest, that sounds to me like it doesn't matter if you're a woman or man.

Finally, the assertion that mankind has a free will is often used to apply blameworthiness, or some measure of culpability for wickedness and sin. This type of freewill theology is based on the either-or question of who is to blame for sin, man or God?
 
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