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If universalism is true then why did God send His Son to die for our sins?

Jeff Saunders

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After death they would have encountered the Trinity. Jesus would still be in His God form.
Yes Jesus would be in his glorified form, but the question is did they have to bow the knee to Jesus as Isaiah 45:23 says, or do they get to see the Father because of whatever they did while in the mortal body with out having to bend the knee to Jesus?
 
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Hentenza

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Yes Jesus would be in his glorified form, but the question is did they have to bow the knee to Jesus as Isaiah 45:23 says, or do they get to see the Father because of whatever they did while in the mortal body with out having to bend the knee to Jesus?
Isaiah 45:23 is not about bowing the knee to Jesus but about bowing the knee to the Father. Read verse 22.
 
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Jeff Saunders

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Isaiah 45:23 is not about bowing the knee to Jesus but about bowing the knee to the Father. Read verse 22.
That was not the question, did they have to accept Jesus as the savior or did they see the Father in a different way.
 
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Hentenza

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That was not the question, did they have to accept Jesus as the savior or did they see the Father in a different way.
The question is irrelevant based on the verse. The first covenant was between God the Father and Israel. The second covenant is about Jesus dying for our sins. Israel during the old covenant did not know Jesus so why would they bow their knee to Him?

Here, these verses should help you understand this concept.

“Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, as He already existed in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but emptied Himself by taking the form of a bond-servant and being born in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death: death on a cross. For this reason also God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee will bow, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”
‭‭Philippians‬ ‭2‬:‭5‬-‭11‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬
 
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Jeff Saunders

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The question is irrelevant based on the verse. The first covenant was between God the Father and Israel. The second covenant is about Jesus dying for our sins. Israel during the old covenant did not know Jesus so why would they bow their knee to Him?

Here, these verses should help you understand this concept.

“Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, as He already existed in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but emptied Himself by taking the form of a bond-servant and being born in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death: death on a cross. For this reason also God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee will bow, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”
‭‭Philippians‬ ‭2‬:‭5‬-‭11‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬
" Israel during the old covenant did not know Jesus so why would they bow their knee to Him"
That is my point- if John 14:6 is a truth and no one comes to the Father except through Jesus, then all those during the OT times must have accepted Jesus after their mortal body was dead, so they , their true selves would have to put their trust in Jesus post mortem, otherwise there are multiple paths to the Father, and Jesus died for nothing.
I believe John 14:6 is a forever truth, and if God did this for OT people why does he not do that now.
So no the question is not irrelevant.
 
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Hentenza

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" Israel during the old covenant did not know Jesus so why would they bow their knee to Him"
That is my point- if John 14:6 is a truth and no one comes to the Father except through Jesus, then all those during the OT times must have accepted Jesus after their mortal body was dead, so they , their true selves would have to put their trust in Jesus post mortem, otherwise there are multiple paths to the Father, and Jesus died for nothing.
I believe John 14:6 is a forever truth, and if God did this for OT people why does he not do that now.
So no the question is not irrelevant.
First, no where in scripture does it teach that there is salvation post mortem.

Second, different covenants. John 14:6 applies to the new covenant not the old.
 
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Jeff Saunders

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First, no where in scripture does it teach that there is salvation post mortem.

Second, different covenants. John 14:6 applies to the new covenant not the old.
Ok so you believe that the OT people got to go to the Father by way of the sacrifices then?
 
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Fervent

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Ok so you believe that the OT people got to go to the Father by way of the sacrifices then?
The OT saints were saved the same way we are today, by grace through faith. Is Christ not the lamb slain from the foundation of the Earth? Then what makes you think temporal relationship alters anything?
 
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Jeff Saunders

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No. By faith in the Father.
Ok so in your belief system there are other ways to get to the Father.
In my belief system Jesus is the only way to the Father, and all those from Adam to Jesus must accept Jesus to get to the Father, so they had to of done it post-mortem, and that is why I believe God still pursues us after our mortal bodies.
 
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Jeff Saunders

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The OT saints were saved the same way we are today, by grace through faith. Is Christ not the lamb slain from the foundation of the Earth? Then what makes you think temporal relationship alters anything?
So do you believe the OT people accepted Jesus after their mortal body had died?
 
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Hentenza

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Ok so in your belief system there are other ways to get to the Father.
No. Only through Faith.
In my belief system Jesus is the only way to the Father, and all those from Adam to Jesus must accept Jesus to get to the Father, so they had to of done it post-mortem, and that is why I believe God still pursues us after our mortal bodies.
Your belief system is not biblical. There is absolutely no scripture that teaches post mortem salvation. Secondly, there is absolutely no scripture that back dates the New Testament to the Old Testament. You continue to blindly state that it does but your argument is flawed from the start.
 
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Jeff Saunders

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No. Only through Faith.

Your belief system is not biblical. There is absolutely no scripture that teaches post mortem salvation. Secondly, there is absolutely no scripture that back dates the New Testament to the Old Testament. You continue to blindly state that it does but your argument is flawed from the start.
Faith in what?
 
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Hentenza

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Faith in what?
In whom not what. Is faith in God.

“¶“Behold, as for the impudent one, His soul is not right within him; But the righteous one will live by his faith.”
‭‭Habakkuk‬ ‭2‬:‭4‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬
 
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Jeff Saunders

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To fulfill the law (first covenant).
I do not believe that there are multiple ways to the Father, I believe John 14:6 is a eternal truth not just for those who came after Jesus came and died for us.
My lens for reading scripture is, all scripture is to be interpreted through Jesus, not just the new covenant.
 
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Hentenza

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I do not believe that there are multiple ways to the Father, I believe John 14:6 is a eternal truth not just for those who came after Jesus came and died for us.
My lens for reading scripture is, all scripture is to be interpreted through Jesus, not just the new covenant.
But again your view is not biblical. In order for your view to work Jesus would have had to become man and die for our sins during the first covenant. That simply did not happen, biblically and historically.
 
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Jeff Saunders

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But again your view is not biblical. In order for your view to work Jesus would have had to become man and die for our sins during the first covenant. That simply did not happen, biblically and historically.
I understand what you believe, tradition says that man can only trust in Jesus while you are in your temporary mortal body, but no place in scripture does it say that. The only scripture that people point out is Hebrews that it is appointed for man to die once then the judgment, the lense that western church has used says judgement and punishment are the same, heaven or hell, but the tradition I follow is that of many of the early church, that 1 Cor 15:28 that God will be all in all- that is Gods telos and you work backwards from that telos, the only conclusion is that God pursues us, our true self, not just when we are in our temporary body. Most people need the mortal body striped away before they can see God/ Jesus as they are and will respond to reconcile only then,God is not bound by time, man tries to put that on God but he is not bound by our time table.
There are many scriptures we are told that its Gods plan to save all his creation and he will, Adams sin is not more powerful than Jesus and his sacrifice for all humanity.
 
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