Maybe the definitions your used to aren't correct in this context.
Indeed the definitions that we're using don't seem to be up to the task. But the definition that I think needs refining here doesn't just involve the one for
'objective', more so it involves the one for
'moral'.
In your above post on
"Synthesis" it posits the following:
Objective morality could refer to universal moral principles, such as the inherent value of human life or the importance of justice, which transcend cultural and historical variations.
If we take this to heart, but we apply it to morality instead of objectivity then we may be closer to understanding how morality can be objective.
If the definition of morality includes the stipulation that it's that which is
just, then '
Thou shalt not kill' becomes the less stringent, '
Thou shalt not murder'. But the same would be true for all other supposed immoralities as well. Like the one against homosexuality. For if there's a genetic predisposition to homosexuality then there may be times when homosexual behavior is indeed
just, for it's in keeping with the way that God created that specific person. It doesn't mean that homosexuality is always moral, but as with '
Thou shalt not kill', it does allow for exceptions... and isn't allowing for
just exceptions in keeping with the nature of God?
So if we redefine morality to include a greater emphasis on that which is
just, and a lesser emphasis on that which is
wrong, then haven't we both come closer to reflecting the true nature of God, but also closer to morality being objective? For what's
just is indeed dependent upon something greater than any person's opinion, and must therefore have a source outside of those opinions.
In any case, thanks for giving me food for thought.