Why did Jesus not explicitly spell out that he was God in the Gospels?

[tonychanyt]

Let string G1 = "I am God".

Why did Jesus not pronounce G1 in the Gospel?

Jesus knew he was God but decided not to proclaim it at the time. Why?

In Jewish culture, directly claiming to be God would have been considered extremely blasphemous. Jesus often used more subtle language that still conveyed his divine nature to those who understood. His favorite label was "Son of Man" which carried Messianic and divine connotations. Still, Jesus did imply that he was God in the Gospels. After his death and resurrection, his apostles understood his divine nature more.

Paul explained in Philippians 2:

5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus,

He gave us his example of servant humility.

6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.

 

[lanceleo]

If Jesus declares himself he is God and not the humble human nature of Jesus Christ, then we get rid of one of the most important doctrine in the bible, the humanity and humility of Jesus. Jesus had to humble himself so he could die on the cross and be all point tempted like we are and yet without sin. If Jesus declares himself to be God, he would be put on a pedestal and be worshipped. He would live like a king and would have little to no temptation and he would lead a very good and comfortable life rather than as a servant.

 

[public hermit]

Why did Jesus not pronounce G1 in the Gospel?

What about all his "I am" statements in John and the "before Abraham was, I am" statement for which they wanted to stone him? Those are different statements than G1, but aren't they the same proposition (sense/reference distinction perhaps)?

 

[Akita Suggagaki]

His parables of the Kingdom stretched and provoked our thinking and rigid concepts. Maybe he was trying to bring about a higher consciousness of what the word "God" means

 

[tonychanyt]

What about all his "I am" statements in John and the "before Abraham was, I am" statement for which they wanted to stone him?

Sure, these may suggest that he was God.

Those are different statements than G1, but aren't they the same proposition (sense/reference distinction perhaps)?

No. Formal propositions are precise. G1 and these other statements took different forms.

Let G2 = "Before Abraham was, I am".

G1 ≠ G2

 

[JEBofChristTheLord]

"I and the Father are One."

 

[public hermit]

Sure, these may suggest that he was God.

No. Formal propositions are precise. G1 and these other statements took different forms.

Let G2 = "Before Abraham was, I am".

G1 ≠ G2

I disagree. Different statements can have the same referent. Pace Frege's example, both Hesperus and Phosphorus have the same referent- Venus. So too, G1 and G2 are differing statements with the same referent- Jesus' divinity.

 

[tonychanyt]

I disagree.

Are you familiar with first-order logic?

 

[public hermit]

Are you familiar with first-order logic?

I have some familiarity.

 

[timothyu]

"I and the Father are One."

One mind? One being? One accord regarding the Kingdom to come?

 

[tonychanyt]

I have some familiarity.

Can you prove G1 = G2 according to FOL?

 

[public hermit]

I will put the basic principle (P1) that I am assuming in predicate logic.

P1 = For every x, if x is a referent, then x can have more than one linguistic token.

All I am saying is G1 and G2 are linguistic tokens of the same referent, i.e., Christ's divinity. As tokens of that same referent, G1 = G2.

 

[tonychanyt]

I will put the basic principle (P1) that I am assuming in predicate logic.

P1 = For every x, if x is a referent, then x can have more than one linguistic token.

All I am saying is G1 and G2 are tokens of the same referent, i.e., Christ's divinity. As tokens of that same referent, G1 = G2.

You need to follow the syntax of FOL. For an example, see The logic of whoever is not with me is against me

 

[public hermit]

You need to follow the syntax of FOL. For an example, see The logic of whoever is not with me is against me

You can translate that principle into syntax if you would like, but it will mean exactly what I wrote in sentences. I don't think this is that complicated. Do you disagree that G1 and G2 are tokens of the same referent? I am a little confused at your hesitation to accept that. Does Jesus saying, "I am God" somehow differ from him saying, "I am"? Is it just that the former explicitly states what is implicit in the later? Okay, I can agree with that, but they both have the same meaning. No?

 

[tonychanyt]

G1 and G2 are linguistic tokens

They are formal strings, not tokens.

 

[JEBofChristTheLord]

One mind? One being? One accord regarding the Kingdom to come?

Why add words to that which Christ the Lord has said? He has said "One", that is very much enough for me without reasoning. It is very interesting to study the responses of Christ the Lord, to reasonings of those who are not God.

 

[timothyu]

He has said "One", that is very much enough for me without reasoning.

Conjecture. In context He was always talking about the Kingdom. It was His Gospel, His good news.

 

[Bobber]

We do know this Jesus told his disciples not to tell what the Father has reveled to Peter that he was the Christ. I think different regions he'd come out and say certain things as he told the woman at the well of Samaria he was the Christ but in the highly religious region where there were a lot of Pharisees etc he didn't for a certain time want that truth highlighted. Thing is in certain places they would have been so incensed with being upset for him to say such a thing that he wouldn't have been able to even share certain messages in those places. Eventually like at his trial he answer the question put to him by the High Priest when he asked if he was the Son of God.....he said YES knowing that would seal the deal and act as a catalyst for them to insist he be executed, to which is why he came to this Earth but only at the certain time was this to take place.

 

[JesusFollowerForever]

Let string G1 = "I am God".

Why did Jesus not pronounce G1 in the Gospel?

Jesus knew he was God but decided not to proclaim it at the time. Why?

In Jewish culture, directly claiming to be God would have been considered extremely blasphemous. Jesus often used more subtle language that still conveyed his divine nature to those who understood. His favorite label was "Son of Man" which carried Messianic and divine connotations. Still, Jesus did imply that he was God in the Gospels. After his death and resurrection, his apostles understood his divine nature more.

Paul explained in Philippians 2:


He gave us his example of servant humility.

did he not?

John 10:30 - "I and My Father are one."
John 8:58 - "Jesus said to them, 'Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.'"
John 14:9 - "Jesus said to him, 'Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, “Show us the Father”?'"

Jesus words and meaning were very clear and were said in public, the Jews understood what he said and wanted to stone him to death because they did not believe him;
Jhn 8:59 Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.

 

[JesusFollowerForever]

Are you familiar with first-order logic?

Mr, Spock, true pure faith is superior to logic anytime.