Would anyone here dare to see the Genesis Adam and Eve "fall" more as a post exilic warning to the surviving Jewish community to obey the religious elders and their teachings (God)? This would mean seeing it less as a literal historical eating forbidden fruit. I know that is impossible for some here. But scholars speculate an a post exilic data. What motives would the authors have and what points trying to make? There is a cause of our suffering? But also, "Listen to us"?
I'd rather say that the Minimalists can assert whatever they want, but even so, whatever conclusions from critical studies involving the Documentary Hypothesis might be pushed by them, their textual "conclusions" don't rule out the possibility of an earlier, "proto" set of teachings from a historical Moses, whether those teachings, including that of Adam and Eve, were in oral or written form. I think of this in an analogous way to how I think that a "Q" document or set of writings, and oral tradition, may have existed prior to the four Gospels we now have.
What's more, I've only seen assertions that perhaps the 1st chapter of Genesis could be a post-exilic product, but I think it begins to become a bit crass and overboard when skeptical scholars posit that much of Genesis is post exilic in its origin of writing, an issue that is still apart from the actual historical contents, or narrative, of Genesis.
In leaning toward the Maximalist position, I tend to think that Moses could very well have existed, that an event approximating the Exodus took place (even of a miraculous sort), that Moses wrote God's commands, and that Moses set out the initial, rudimentary writings that developed into the Torah/Pentateuch that we now have. I don't rule out the possibility that the Torah/Pentateuch we now have is, for the most part, what the original writings of Moses could have been.
But to assume a post-exilic origin for all of this, as well as for much of the rest of the Old Testament, that idea pulls at the seams for me.