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Matt 1:
Not necessarily. Bengel explained:
Looking at other passages, I think so.
Did the word "until" imply that Joseph had sexual intercourse with Mary after Jesus was born?24 When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife, 25a but knew her not until she had given birth to a son.
Not necessarily. Bengel explained:
Gill agreed:οὐκ ἐγίνωσκεν αὐτὴν, ἓως οὗ, knew her not until) It does not follow from this ἓως (until) that he did so afterwards
Did Joseph have sexual intercourse with Mary after Jesus was born?the word "until" may be so understood as referring to the time preceding, that the contrary cannot be affirmed of the time following,
Looking at other passages, I think so.