Age of the earth.

[BNR32FAN]

No they are not the same word. According to Strong's one is used 316 times the Adam in Chapter one is used 22 times. You can read all 22 and NONE of them refer to the Adam in chapter 2.

You can believe what you want, I do not do this for you, I to this for myself so I know what the word of God says.

Hebrew Concordance: ’ā·ḏām -- 22 Occurrences

Do you see Genesis 1:26 is the list of usages in your link? Your searching for the wrong word because the word on the link you posted isn’t used in Genesis 1:26.

 

[Diamond72]

it’s too bad they’ll never find all of the information they need to make an accurate prediction.

All the information we need is in the Bible and in the Hebrew Language itself.
The problem is when language became confused at the tower of Babel.

 

[Diamond72]

The word we see for Adam in Genesis 2 is irrelevant.

NOTHING in the Bible is irrelevant. Esp there are ONLY 22 letters and to say a letter is irrelevant is just plain crazy. The numeric value of Mem is 40.

You



what does the numeric value of a word mean in hebrew



In Hebrew, each letter of the alphabet is also assigned a numerical value. This system is known as gematria. Gematria is the practice of assigning numerical values to words or phrases and then seeking significance or connections between words of equal value.
In gematria, words or phrases with the same numerical value are considered to have some kind of relationship or connection, even if they are not directly related in meaning. This practice is often used in Jewish mysticism, particularly in Kabbalistic texts, to uncover hidden meanings or connections within the Hebrew Bible or other sacred texts.

Gematria is a complex and esoteric practice that requires knowledge of Hebrew language and numerology.

 

[BNR32FAN]

NOTHING in the Bible is irrelevant. Esp there are ONLY 22 letters and to say a letter is irrelevant is just plain crazy. The numeric value of Mem is 40.

You



what does the numeric value of a word mean in hebrew



In Hebrew, each letter of the alphabet is also assigned a numerical value. This system is known as gematria. Gematria is the practice of assigning numerical values to words or phrases and then seeking significance or connections between words of equal value.
In gematria, words or phrases with the same numerical value are considered to have some kind of relationship or connection, even if they are not directly related in meaning. This practice is often used in Jewish mysticism, particularly in Kabbalistic texts, to uncover hidden meanings or connections within the Hebrew Bible or other sacred texts.

Gematria is a complex and esoteric practice that requires knowledge of Hebrew language and numerology.

Are you going to acknowledge the fact that the Hebrew word אָדָ֛ם isn’t in the link you posted and neither is Genesis 1:26?

Here’s your link

Hebrew Concordance: ’ā·ḏām -- 22 Occurrences

Why isn’t Genesis 1:26 listed in this link?

 

[Diamond72]

Are you going to acknowledge the fact that the Hebrew word אָדָ֛ם isn’t in the link you posted and neither is Genesis 1:26?

In verse 26 and 27 both versions are used. Because the hunter gather that God created in Genesis chapter one was the father for Adam in the Garden of Eden. According to DNA Science. I have studied DNA along with genealogies and I have studied the generations in the Bible so I have an idea of what is going on in the Bible. The Mormons are exp into genealogies.

We are getting into TE which we do not talk about much on here. I assume you are having a discussion about YEC and I am talking about something different than that. Even GAP would allow for time to take place between The man in Chapter one and the man in Chapter two.

So to repeat. The reason that the Garden of Eden is mentioned with the Hunter gather Adam is because one descended from the other. At least according to science. That is why some YEC people have to do a lot of mental gymnastics to get their theory to work with the known facts.

So I ask you. Has mankind been around for 200 million years or not? Because according to the evidence we have primates and mammals evolved when the dinosaurs were killed in the flood. Actually OEC and YEC say the same thing. They just have a dispute over the length of a day. They do not argue the events they argue the time factor.

Now you answer my question. Why does man come from women in chapter one but women comes from man in chapter two? How do you explain that?

 

[BeyondET]

It was a busy day, but there’s no reason why anyone must conclude that everything mentioned in Genesis 2 couldn’t have taken place on that one day.

Because a presto super sonic speed creation Isn’t logical. Even though its possible with God.

 

[BeyondET]

Speed and Time and even Strength all meaningless, mean nothing, in the Light of His Glory and Graciousness for those who are saved in Jesus Name.

There's Speed of Light in Time of Glory in Strength of Graciousness.

 

[BNR32FAN]

In verse 26 and 27 both versions are used. Because the hunter gather that God created in Genesis chapter one was the father for Adam in the Garden of Eden. According to DNA Science. I have studied DNA along with genealogies and I have studied the generations in the Bible so I have an idea of what is going on in the Bible. The Mormons are exp into genealogies.

We are getting into TE which we do not talk about much on here. I assume you are having a discussion about YEC and I am talking about something different than that. Even GAP would allow for time to take place between The man in Chapter one and the man in Chapter two.

So to repeat. The reason that the Garden of Eden is mentioned with the Hunter gather Adam is because one descended from the other. At least according to science. That is why some YEC people have to do a lot of mental gymnastics to get their theory to work with the known facts.

So I ask you. Has mankind been around for 200 million years or not? Because according to the evidence we have primates and mammals evolved when the dinosaurs were killed in the flood. Actually OEC and YEC say the same thing. They just have a dispute over the length of a day. They do not argue the events they argue the time factor.

Now you answer my question. Why does man come from women in chapter one but women comes from man in chapter two? How do you explain that?

Finally the truth comes out. Let me ask you this, did Jesus really walk on water? Did Lot’s wife really turn into a pillar of salt? Can you honestly say that you really believe what the Bible says?

 

[BNR32FAN]

Because a presto super sonic speed creation Isn’t logical. Even though its possible with God.

You and DismondT both have the same problem, you don’t actually believe what is written in the Bible.

 

[BroRoyVa79]

26Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, after Our likeness, to rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock, and over all the earth itself and every creature that crawls upon it.”

27So God created man in His own image;

The man in verse 27 is NOT spelled the same as the man in verse 26.

According to Strong's one is used 316 times and the other is used 22 times. You can read all 22 and NONE of them refer to the Adam in chapter 2.

You can believe what you want, I do not do this for you, I to this for myself so I know what the word of God says.

Hebrew Concordance: ’ā·ḏām -- 22 Occurrences

I just want to jump in here and correct you. In Genesis 1:26 and 1:27, the word for man is actually the same word אָדָם for "man" with the exact same spelling (read from right to left as per Hebrew is read from right to left) you have a Mem-Dalet-Aleph with nekudots to indicate vowel and pronunciation on them. There's no difference between this word in these two verses.

What you should really be paying attention to is the whole phrase: הָאָדָם אָדָם (ha'adam) which usually indicates a translation of "the man" depending on context. However, it is good practice of translators to translate Genesis 2:19 and 2:20 as simply "Adam" despite the phrase הָאָדָם אָדָם (ha'adam) being there in the Hebrew. They do this because of the context switch from speaking about mankind to one singular "man" which is followed up by Genesis 3:17 and 3:21 where אָדָם (Adam) is there without the הָאָדָם (ha'adam) part. Without the "ha'" part of the word, it's an indication that we are dealing with The Adam, as in the historical ancestor of the human race.

We also see this in Genesis 1:26, in the Hebrew it is אָדָם without the "ha'" part indicating this is The Adam that is being created in 1:26. In Genesis 1:27 it switches to ha'adam because the context is about God creating mankind by way of creating man and woman. Genesis 2:4-2:25 is a more detailed focused summary of what God did on the sixth day in Genesis 1:24-1:31 in relation to the creation of mankind and the direct progenitors of mankind. This is evident by Genesis 2:4 starting with "These are the generations of the heavens and earth on the day when God created the earth and the heavens" telling you that it's going into a more detailed, focused, summary of the creation and history of mankind starting from the creation of our direct descendants. You can cross reference this with Genesis 5;1-2 which is another place this phrase, "These are the generations..." is used, but in this case the focus is directly on Adam's lineage. Genesis 5:1 is pretty much a repeat of Genesis 1:26-27, but it's linking the creation of "man" in 1:26-27 to Adam since the word for Adam is אָדָם without the "ha'" indicating there's no different man in chapter one and in chapter two as you stated elsewhere. Genesis 1 and Genesis 2 are both talking about The Actual Adam but shift from talking about mankind to The Actual Adam and Eve.

Speaking of Eve. You have another problem with your approach. In Genesis 2:23 , Eve is called אִשָּׁה ('iššâ) which means "woman" However, it is capitalized in translations to indicate this is a person rather than a generic woman. The same word was used in Genesis 2:22, but it's a phrase לְאִשָּׁה (a woman), it's also used in Genesis 2:24, again it's a phrase בְּאִשְׁתּוֹ אִשָּׁה (to his wife). In Genesis 3, it switches to הָאִשָּׁה אִשָּׁה (the woman) but in context we already know this is talking about The Woman, as in the actual historical woman God created for Adam back in Genesis 2.

I went to school for this and a word of caution about concordances, many of them don't help you understand context and translation practices and/or why a translation was done.

In verse 26 and 27 both versions are used. Because the hunter gather that God created in Genesis chapter one was the father for Adam in the Garden of Eden. According to DNA Science. I have studied DNA along with genealogies and I have studied the generations in the Bible so I have an idea of what is going on in the Bible. The Mormons are exp into genealogies.

There's nothing in the genealogies or generations listed in the Bible that indicates that there was a father (aside from God) for Adam. You are reading that into the text by way of reading strange things into the Hebrew alphabet and sentences.

We are getting into TE which we do not talk about much on here. I assume you are having a discussion about YEC and I am talking about something different than that. Even GAP would allow for time to take place between The man in Chapter one and the man in Chapter two.

So to repeat. The reason that the Garden of Eden is mentioned with the Hunter gather Adam is because one descended from the other. At least according to science. That is why some YEC people have to do a lot of mental gymnastics to get their theory to work with the known facts.

As said above, there aren't two different men in Genesis 1 and Genesis 2 when you pay attention to the Hebrew correctly and let it says what it says. Genesis 1:26-27 is linked to Genesis 5:1-2. Genesis 5:2, as I said above, pretty much is a summary copy of Genesis 1:26-27. It's rare to find anything in scripture written in a vacuum. The early chapters of Genesis are pretty repetitive and clear in indicating that the history of mankind goes from God to Adam & Eve to their children to Noah to us. The only deviation from connecting us to Creation is when the focus shifts from all mankind to Abraham and the history of Israel in Genesis 12.

Now you answer my question. Why does man come from women in chapter one but women comes from man in chapter two? How do you explain that?

Genesis 1 does not say that man comes from women. Not sure where you're getting that I may have missed one of your previous posts. Genesis 1:26-27 starts with focus on the man's creation. This is evident in 1:27: "So God created man in his own image, in the image of God he created him; male and female he created them." Notice how it goes from a singular focus "created him" to a plural focus "created them." In Hebrew the word for "him" and "them" is אֵת ('ēṯ/eth) in both of those places, but for "them" it's in 3rd person masculine plural אֹתָם. So, switches from a focus on a singular man to humanity as in A man, The Actual Adam, came before The Actual Woman/Eve in the sequence of Creation.

 

[BeyondET]

You and DismondT both have the same problem, you don’t actually believe what is written in the Bible.

I believe what is written just not how you perceive it, no problem imo.

 

[BeyondET]

Finally the truth comes out. Let me ask you this, did Jesus really walk on water? Did Lot’s wife really turn into a pillar of salt? Can you honestly say that you really believe what the Bible says?

Would you really pluck out an eye or cut off a hand?

 

[BNR32FAN]

Would you really pluck out an eye or cut off a hand?

Those are childish comparisons.

 

[BeyondET]

Those are childish comparisons.

It's what the bible says, why is it childish? Don't you honestly believe what it says?

 

[Diamond72]

(just checking also- did you read them?

I have read Genesis chapter one and two many many times. I have read the whole Bible at least 5 times cover to cover.

 

[Diamond72]

They do this because of the context switch from speaking about mankind to one singular "man"

Exactly and that is the point I was trying to make.

 

[Diamond72]

I went to school for this

I went to Bible College also. Although I study a lot the Bible from the Rabbi on You Tube when they teach us the oral tradition vs the written Bible and the Hebrew Language.

Genesis 1 does not say that man comes from women. Not sure where you're getting that

Genesis chapter one does not talk about a man and a women. They talk about a male and a female.
1 Corinthians 11:12 (NIV), Paul writes: "For as woman came from man, so also man is born of woman. But everything comes from God

As said above, there aren't two different men in Genesis 1 and Genesis 2

Science says that man goes back hundreds of millions of years. The evidence is overwhelming for this. This does not even get into what the Bible says about how we come from the stars. Science goes a long way to helping us understand our Bible. I do not know why God wants us to know, but He does. Also you know the Rabbi teach that God used the Hebrew Language to create the Universe. Again, He wants us to know what He did and How He created the Universe we live in. I even had a dream where God showed me the universe when I was around 8 years old. Long before I learned about this from science.

The early chapters of Genesis are pretty repetitive

not at all. There is a huge amount of information condensed down to very little. As you know every letter has profound meaning. If every book in the worlds talked about Genesis Chapter one we would still only be getting started in our understanding and we still would have a long way go. Yet there is speculation that all the information of the universe is contained within every proton of every atom in the Universe. That is why we are all one with the universe. This is what entanglement theory is based on.

 

[Diamond72]

Finally the truth comes out. Let me ask you this, did Jesus really walk on water? Did Lot’s wife really turn into a pillar of salt? Can you honestly say that you really believe what the Bible says?

I believe in a literal Bible. We keep going over this again and again. The Bible has many, up to 100 levels or layers of meaning. This is why I can be oec and yec at the same time. They are two different theories talking about two totally different things.

If we look at the animal sacrifices it is what they represent that is important. Not the sacrifice themselves. God again speaks through Isaiah and asks the children of Israel to bring no more sacrifices to Him: “To what purpose is the multitude of your sacrifices to Me?” says the Lord. “I have had enough of burnt offerings of rams and the fat of fed cattle. I do not delight in the blood of bulls, or of lambs or goats.

BTW the main cause of death today is from eating the fat of cattle. The Bible and Science is clear that we are not to eat animal fat. Eli's sons were called evil and wicked in various translations because they ate the meat before the fat was cooked or boiled off of it.

 

[BeyondET]

BTW the main cause of death today is from eating the fat of cattle. The Bible and Science is clear that we are not to eat animal fat. Eli's sons were called evil and wicked in various translations because they ate the meat before the fat was cooked or boiled off of it.

There's more to that story, and the truth about DHA a Omega 3 faty acid only found in animal meat. Plants contain zero DHA. They contain ALA which the humanbody can convert to DHA but at a poor rate of only 10%.

The human brain is two thirds fat and another 20% is all DHA. Can't live without it, it's vital to brain function.

 

[Sabertooth]

I do not subscribe to a pre-Adamic race, but I do recognize an undetermined, pre-organic "gap" (which I call Day* 0).
The first stated organisms [plants] were created on Refinement Day 3 [Genesis 1:11-13].
So, organic life is approximately 6K years old.
Since the sky was not populated until Refinement Day 4, heavenly bodies must be approximately 6K years, too (unless they were present earlier, just unlit).

*Unlike Days 1-7, "Day" 0 is not bound to a single evening and a single morning, so I use the term day loosely prior to Refinement Day 1.