The point being even biblically it says that we must obey others, be of service, sacrifice our own wants in loving and caring for others. In other words duty and sacrifice to the marriage or relationship or family.
Sure. But the point is not to create a situation where one party to the marriage is a tyrant to the other.
How is it a non sequiturwhen in both situations its about gender equality and rights.
My point was that gender equality between men and women was separate to how we handle the gender identity of transgendered people. You then made some unrelated point about same-sex couples or gender diverse couples.
Whatever applies to a relationship with women and men applies to relationships with gender diverse people.
I don't think that's entirely true.
It doesn't matter about what the situations were because it was about how many reports.
The situations matter if you're trying to claim particular situations cause abuse.
The further investigation is based on the elevated risk for actual physical abuse.
You mean, actual reports? I should blinking well hope we investigate actual reports (rather than assumptions about risk).
I notice when I persist you only give short unsupported replies.
Because we've been over and over this. I've given longer and more detailed replies. If you then keep repeating the same flawed arguments, I am not of a mind to repeat myself.
How do you misunderstand several articles that may say the same thing in plain english and mean what they say.
Steve, I have given you examples where I've read through an article you claim is stating one thing, and pulled out the quote where it says exactly the opposite of what you're claiming.
So the question "how do you misunderstand?" is not really best directed at me!
For example when they all say poverty and low socioeconomic status is either directly or closely linked to physical abuse.
That's not the same as causing it, though. And when we start to recognise that part of the reason this perception is in place is because abuse often goes unrecognised in higher socioeconomic households, we start to see that any claims about a causative relationship are very shaky indeed.
Or when they say child abuse is caused by a number of factors and theres no single factor. How can they mean something else or be misunderstanding their own research on this matter.
Most of the time they've demonstrated no causative relationship between any of those factors and abuse. They've stretched from a statistical correlation to causation without any evidence.
If you want to claim "x causes abuse," of course it matters. You'd better front up with some evidence that it's more than correlation. Otherwise you end up (for example) claiming that ice cream sales cause abuse because ice cream sales correlate with abuse reports (but really, it's the underlying heat affecting both).
If they are correlated then they are associated outcomes with that behaviour or situation enough that we take them seriously as a risk to children. For example theres a 70% greater risk for a infant being killed by a non biological partner of a single mother. Do we not take this seriously as a higher risk for infants because it may not be the cause. It may not be the direct cause but its certainly a contributing factor.
If it's not the cause, then (for example) trying to prevent blended households is irrelevant as an abuse prevention strategy.
Yes it is. If you choose to smoke or have a poor diet and exercise (lifestyle choice) that abuses your body and leads to a higher risk of heart disease and eventually a heart attack that is a chosen behaviour. I have shot down this objection before.
Sorry, but your argument here doesn't wash. Yes, someone can choose to smoke and have a higher risk of heart disease. But someone doesn't choose to do something that leads to a higher risk of abuse; they directly choose to abuse. It is absolutely not the same.
Yes it did when it said under the heading 'Can benefits protect against maltreatment?' it said Without compensatory benefits, financial shocks were associated with "a 38% increase in physical abuse investigations".
An increase in investigations is not an increase in abuse!
But you did acknowledge it was a risk for potential physical abuse.
No. That's not what I said. A report is not a "risk." It is a report; a disclosure; an instance of abuse. At that point we're beyond statistical probability, and we are also not able to generalise from that instance to any wider group.
I am talking about a higher risk for that situation and not specific households.
I know; and that's what I'm pushing back against.
Are you saying the articles themselves are making bad arguements. All of them even those from professionals in child protection and wellbeing.
Some of them, yes, and I have given you sources explaining why.
Public health issues include wellbeing. Smoking, drinking, drugs, poor diets, lack of exercise, speeding, theres a lot of behaviour that is chosen that is classed as a public health and wellbeing issue.
Many of those are quite different to abuse in that abuse is a much more direct choice, though.
I don't. That's why my sentence began with "
One thing I'd be fascinated to investigate further..." It's a hypothesis I would like to see tested. I can, for example, see how economic shock could bring abusive households into contact with welfare or social workers for the first time, creating relationships and trust in which abuse could be disclosed.
But I would say for the majority there was already some abuse going on as financial shock doesn't have the same effect for parents who are not abusing or don't have any emotional abuse or neglect but rather have the protective factors.
Well, I'd argue more that since parents who abuse in situations of financial shock are likely to have held the beliefs which underpin abuse before financial shock, it is very likely that there was already abuse going on.
You say that but you don't tell me.
This is a forum thread, not an academic discussion. I am not obliged to reply to every single point made, or respond to every single link posted. I do so enough to demonstrate the problems with your argument, but I am not going to do more than that.
You say that like some expert in psychology. How do you know this. I have studied psychology for years and at Uni. What academic qualifications do you have for making such a claim.
I'm not going to claim particular expertise in psychology (although I did a bit across my different degrees), but I can critically read sources. Studies which measure unspecified "irrational beliefs" are not even measuring the beliefs which drive abuse. Nor have you given any study which shows that the very specific beliefs which drive abuse are held irrationally. Claiming that because a study says stress increases irrational beliefs, it must be driving abuse, is missing a whole bunch of necessary steps in that argument.
I think that would be hard in lining up all these things to happen in such a coordinated way let along be ethical.
I think I can see how it would be done. But I am not arguing that it could, or even that it should. I'm simply outlining the standard of evidence I'd consider robust enough to support your claim.
But we do have this evdience from single studies which do link say irrational thinking and beliefs to psychological disorders and then seperate studies which link psychological disorders with lack of emotional regulation and agreesive and violent behaviour. Or in the case of parenting controlling and rigid parenting which can turn abusive.
This is good science as its showing the connections from two seperate and independent paths.
Umm, no. It's not good science to take the sets of answers to two quite different questions, neither of which directly address your question, and then draw conclusions on your question.
No they are not similar and you could not know because you admit not reading them.
I can skim an abstract.
Thats not the point. The point is even though it doesn't measure them seperately it still states that physical abuse in involved.
Your equating that because they don't specifiy then theres not PA involved at all. But there is and because there is there is a risk for PA happening.
I'm not saying there's no physical abuse. I'm saying that if the basket of behaviours called "child mistreatment" is bigger, but the forms of child mistreatment aren't being measured separately, you can't tell which forms of mistreatment are increasing under particular conditions.
My argument is not about risk. It's about causes. You can't use this to demonstrate causes.
No they don't. They do not use reasoning based on objective facts.
You said "Theres no way anyone can rationalise in any objective and coherent way based on reasoning facts..."
But you yourself have done that, in this thread! For corporal punishment in schools in other cultures, for example. It's exactly the same. People who are abusive do rationalise their behaviour. They are not all irrational, and their abuse is not resting on "irrational beliefs."
As long as you keep claiming that, I think you're going to quite miss the point about abuse. It's chosen by people who believe it is justified.
Once again how do you know, It may be they often are irrational in their thinking.
We know because we have studied the beliefs and attitudes of believers in depth. We know exactly which beliefs drive abuse. And while they might be ethically problematic, they are not "irrational."
Without compensatory benefits, shocks were associated with a 38% increase in physical abuse investigations
So my point was upheld.
Again, an increase in investigations is not the same as an increase in abuse. That kind of basic flaw undermines your whole argument.