Yeshua HaDerekh
Men dream of truth, find it then cant live with it
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Not all were...while the Jews were cut off.
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Not all were...while the Jews were cut off.
Actually, it is a matter of understanding all Scripture in the light of the NT.I think God can speak for Himself- and He did. It’s just a matter if we have faith to believe in every Word that proceeds from His mouth.
Some things, not everything which is why Jesus and the apostles quoted from it often in their teachings, instead of deleting it. In fact, Jesus said if we do not believe Moses, we do not believe Him. John 5:46-47Actually, it is a matter of understanding all Scripture in the light of the NT.
Things aren't the same in the NT as they were in the OT.
If they were pagans and were turning back to those weak and miserable forces, would that not mean that they were reverting to pagan practices, and not to the Law of the Jews? If that is the case, why does Paul attack the concept of being enslaved to the Law of the Jews and not pagan practices?The Galatians were former pagans...
Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods. But now that you know God—or rather are known by God—how is it that you are turning back to those weak and miserable forces? Do you wish to be enslaved by them all over again?
And the rest of the story. . .Some things, not everything which is why Jesus and the apostles quoted from it often in their teachings, instead of deleting it. In fact, Jesus said if we do not believe Moses, we do not believe Him. John 5:46-47
I try not to read into what Jesus says and believe what He actually says.And the rest of the story. . .
Loose handling of Scripture.
Jesus is referring to Moses' testimony to Jesus' coming (Dt 18:18-19). He is not referring to the Mosaic law.
2 different things. Some were mixing paganism and Christianity.If they were pagans and were turning back to those weak and miserable forces, would that not mean that they were reverting to pagan practices, and not to the Law of the Jews? If that is the case, why does Paul attack the concept of being enslaved to the Law of the Jews and not pagan practices?
Although that is probably quite true, Paul does not even hint at it in his letter to the Galatians. Instead, his focus is clearly on those who have surrendered themselves to obeying the Jewish law. That would include both the Gentiles (who probably constituted the large majority of the assembly) as well as any Jews there.2 different things. Some were mixing paganism and Christianity.
That explains a lot.I try not to read into what Jesus says and believe what He actually says.
No I just believe Jesus without needing to edit His Words. Take care.That explains a lot.
Absent the context of all Scripture definitely explains the contra-NT thinking.
Failure to understand Scripture in context of all the NT is failure to understand Scripture.No I just believe Jesus without needing to edit His Words. Take care.
Agreed. Jesus is pretty easy to understand so no need for an alternate interpretation. Since you believe all the Mosiac law ended can you point to the scripture where we no longer need to keep the greatest commandments?Failure to understand Scripture in context of all the NT is failure to understand Scripture.
Straw man. . .Agreed. Jesus is pretty easy to understand so no need for an alternate interpretation. Since you believe all the Mosiac law ended
Can you point to the Scripture which denies that he who loves his fellowman has fulfilled the law, whatever other laws there may becan you point to the scripture where we no longer need to keep the greatest commandments?
pagans.Were the Galatians originally Jews or Pagans???
The Galatians were former pagans...
Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods. But now that you know God—or rather are known by God—how is it that you are turning back to those weak and miserable forces? Do you wish to be enslaved by them all over again?
That wasn't the question- you said Jesus when He spoke about Moses' writings, He wasn't referring to the Mosaic law, Jesus quoted from the greatest commandments from the Mosaic law, which means not all of the Mosaic law ended.Straw man. . .
The ceremonial (Levitcal) laws have been abolished (Eph 2:15).
The Decalogue was summed up in one rule: love of God and love of neighbor as self (Ro 13:8-10).
"He who loves his fellowman has fulfilled the law." (Ro 13:8)
"Whatever other commandments there may be are summed up in one rule: 'Love your neighbor as yourself.' " (Ro 13:9)
"Love is the fulfillment of the law." (Ro 13:10).
Can you point to the Scripture which denies that he who loves his fellowman has fulfilled the law, whatever other laws there may be
(Ro 13:8-9)?
The New Covenant is specifically made with "The house of Israel and the house of Judah"while the Jews were cut off.
Summed up (means summarized) it does not mean "abolished".The Decalogue was summed up in one rule: love of God and love of neighbor as self (Ro 13:8-10).
"He who loves his fellowman has fulfilled the law." (Ro 13:8)
"Whatever other commandments there may be are summed up in one rule: 'Love your neighbor as yourself.' " (Ro 13:9)
"Love is the fulfillment of the law." (Ro 13:10).
Yes -- according to Christ it misses "The GREATEST Commandment" and all those Laws cased on it.Can you point to the Scripture which denies that he who loves his fellowman has fulfilled the law, whatever other laws there may be
(Ro 13:8-9)?
Amen. Doing otherwise would be eisegesis - reading your bias INTO scripture
Indeed it does.That explains a lot.
false.And the rest of the story. . .
Loose handling of Scripture.
Jesus is referring to Moses' testimony to Jesus' coming (Dt 18:18-19). He is not referring to the Mosaic law.