maxamir said:
Pro 16:33 The lot is cast into the lap, But its every decision is from the LORD.
God can prophetically declare the “end from the beginning” because He has neither an end nor a beginning, being timeless and eternal. The Bible does not state that God caused the end from the beginning, though Calvinists teach that that’s the only way God could infallibly know the end from the beginning.
Lousy logic: How would God declaring, (why bother to say, 'prophetically', btw? —do you have a problem with God decreeing the end from the beginning?), be dependent on our notions of his timelessness and eternity? It's not enough that the Bible says that he does so? Or are you only saying that it makes sense that he would declare the end from the beginning, because he is timeless and eternal?
Misrepresentation of Calvinism. It does not say that causing the end from the beginning is the only way God could infallibly know the end from the beginning. It only says that he does, and that it makes perfect sense that he would know the end from the beginning, since he causes the end from the beginning.
Again, through this whole mess, you refuse to admit that 'God is
First Cause' necessarily means that NOTHING can happen apart from his causation.
Declaring and
causing are not the same things. For example, according to
1 Corinthians 15:1, Paul makes known the gospel. So, does that mean that Paul caused the gospel? Or, instead does it mean that he is revealing what the gospel already is? This is why it is improper to automatically conflate
declaring with
causing.
Category error. For Paul or any creature, to declare is not the same as to cause. For God, who is not complicated by our assessments and definitions, decreeing IS causing, whether directly, or by secondary causes, (and tertiary etc). God is not like us.
maxamir said:
Pro_21:1 The king's heart is in the hand of the LORD, Like the rivers of water; He turns it wherever He wishes
This speaks of God’s ability to influence and effect outcomes, and it stands to reason that God could do this for any person and in any scenario, should God wish it. For example, I can turn my dog’s attention whenever I wish, but that doesn’t mean that I always do so. Establishing God’s ability over a king’s will doesn’t disprove free human agency, but rather establishes it. After all, what is there for God to overcome or guide if not the autonomous will of His subject? Why turn a will left that wants to go right if you’re already controlling the want of that will (as Calvinist's assert)?
You remind me of people who can only think in terms of Point-of-Sale, where each event is its own. You self-deterministic types keep ignoring the fact that God created, and that him creating necessarily implies detail, by chains of causation, if no other way. How you can come up with, for example, that God knowing the end from the beginning does not imply knowing the middle, is beyond me. What— does something
happen to God, he did not know, when he started this ball rolling? Does the ball roll by some other principle that he did not himself cause? Is it steered by principles that he did not designate nor even intend?
"God's ability to influence", you say. It is only an ability? Look at how you think! God only 'inserts himself' into situations? Is not every motion of the smallest particle upheld by the word of his power? Is he unaware of each one, and only categorically upholds them, leaving them to their own devices, each one itself imbued with freewill, or directed by mere chance?
Monstrously, though, you allow him to control the king's will *gasp!*. If it is ok, and not unfair, and not unkind, and not contrary to the logic of freewill, for him to control the King's will, or as you put it, to "do this for any person and in any scenario, should God wish it", then why would it be a problem for him to do so with ALL individuals? Ironically enough, you yourself say that him doing so
establishes free will! So says the WCF! So say I! Or did I read you wrong, and you do have a problem with him being unfair to the king?
If, according to Calvinists, God has brought all things to pass by His unchangeable decree, then what is it in the heart of this ruler that God is now turning or restraining except that which He has already decreed? For example, suppose the ruler of
Proverbs 21:1-3 wanted to rape his servant but God restrains him from acting upon his lustful intention. From the Calvinist perspective, where did the ruler’s lustful intention originate? Did God not sovereignly bring about the ruler’s evil desire, and then by the same decree also restrain him from acting upon that desire? In such a case, God would merely be restraining His own determinations in a world where there are no autonomously free creatures. It is nonsensical to suggest God is restraining a will that He has already been meticulously controlling. The passage doesn’t make any sense unless there is free-will, in which under divine influence, a
new course is being directed.
You are describing Point-of-sale mindset. Appearances. You seem to me to think that each step in life is its own, which, amazingly enough, works against your notion that God does not control the middle.
If God causes absolutely everything, then this is no problem at all, and all your paradoxes are self-constructed. God can take the king, or anyone, to whatever place he wishes, and then change their course yet again. Where's the problem with that? But apparently you think that is God working against himself.
Again, through this whole mess, you refuse to admit that 'God is First Cause' necessarily means that NOTHING can happen apart from his causation.
And still, you have not explained how it is not self-contradictory to claim that First Cause can cause another first cause, i.e. uncaused free will.