First off...thanks for keeping this dialogue civil. I know you normally do, but these days it seems like this conversation is difficult to have without someone making snap moral judgements about your character no matter what side of the discussion you're on.
Secondly, my reply took so long because frankly, I've thought pretty extensively about the topic and could pretty easily fill 5 pages on CF here and still have more to write. I will try to stick to a couple of central points.
Because race has been such a big factor in this country in determining who gets what, I’m not sure that removing race from consideration necessarily would “create the most opportunity for each individual”.
How big of a factor is it? It's the central claim of the argument you're making and I honestly don't see how anyone can actually know such a thing. Claims about the size and scope of racial discrimination on outcomes appear to be....largely subjective. Anyone can pick a statistic and claim it supports their beliefs about the importance of racial discrimination in wealth outcomes.
For example, I could use the numbers from the DOJ in the OP and claim even though racial discrimination impacts asians 10 times as much as it does blacks (in regards to admissions) and whites 4 times as much as blacks. In spite of this clearly institutionalized racial discrimination against whites and asians....it doesn't appear to significantly impact their average wealth over their lifetimes. As a group, asians are doing the best...whites the second best...ergo, institutional racism doesn't necessarily have a huge impact on wealth that some seem to believe.
Likewise, I'm sure you can point to some numbers on redlining (for example) and claim that the institutionalized racism is a huge factor that impacts lifetime wealth.
My point here isn't that we should endlessly go back and forth arguing about the importance of such a factor. My point is that since the importance of the factor cannot be known our discussion should be the morality/ethics of racial discrimination...or perhaps more accurately, the morality of a principle based upon racial discrimination.
The principle in question here is whether or not one can be morally justified in knee-capping a racial group economically so that another race can benefit.
Like a Tonya Harding (blacks) asking a guy (the government) to hide in the bushes to whack Nancy Kerrigan (asians and whites)
in the knee to get a leg up on the competition.
I'm saying that fully understanding the argument for such behavior is that blacks were getting kneecapped in the past....but to me this is a strange argument because I'm sure we both agree that such racist discrimination was wrong in the past....and much like now, those who committed such injustices in the past believed they had perfectly good reasons as well.
The advantages that would provide a leg up on a meritocratic admission system would also provide a leg up elsewhere in life, so it wouldn’t surprise me if the marginal benefit of an ivy league education was lower for a rich kid than it was for a poor or middle class kid. For example, are Jared Kushner and the Trump kids wealthy because they went to Harvard and Penn or are they wealthy because they were born wealthy? For a kid from middle-of-nowhere Kansas or some low-rent neighborhood of Detroit, Harvard could be the gateway to a whole new world; for them, it’s a nice plaque on the wall.
It really depends on what opportunities they use the degree for. That poor kid going to Harvard for a degree in finance can open up a new world of opportunities. If however, the kid chooses to get a degree in pan-African religious studies or genderqueer dance theory isn't likely to get much more value out of it than a wall decoration.
Likewise, if the rich kid squandered opportunities of a higher education, he risks failing to maintain the wealth his family has worked so hard to bequeath him.
There’s also the question of how much race is overtly factored into these admissions vs how much it merely maps onto other parameters that are used. I don’t know the answer to this, but I can imagine a situation where race is ignored completely, bonus points are given solely on the basis of something like poverty, and you still wind up with the sort of racial disparities alleged in the OP. In the US, blacks tend to be poorer than whites and Asians, so in a poverty-based system, they would get the most points. OTOH, US immigration policy has selected for Asians (including east asians and indians) who tend to be better educated and more entrepreneurial, leading them to be more affluent than the average. They still wind up over-represented in universities, but don’t get the poverty points that blacks and some whites get, so their average test scores are higher, making it appear as if they’re being discriminated against.
I can't say I know....the article claims that the DOJ looked at identical merits....so if household wealth is a factor in admissions I'm inclined to think that it was the same (relatively speaking) for the applicants they looked at.
It's possible though, that factor isn't overtly considered but still considered subjectively. Obviously, there's no real "perfect merit system" since people aren't capable of valuing such various factors perfectly.