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Who Changed Genesis?

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Of course he did. Not sure what your point is.

The point is that the King James translators came afterwards. Any work he did that would have not agreed with them, would have been sifted out.
 
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The Nicean Creed.

Or, more generally - in church.

Where did the Nicean Creed or your church get this truth from?
Was it a revelation from God? A vision? A dream?
Surely it was the Scriptures that they derived this truth.
 
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solid_core

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Where did the Nicean Creed or your church get this truth from?
Was it a revelation from God? A vision? A dream?
Surely it was the Bible that they derived this truth.
Nothing like that. The nicean creed is a product of long time discussions in the church in the first centuries. They did not get the doctrine falling upon them from heaven at once.

Yes, the truth had to be derived from various places in the Bible and from the apostolic tradition of the first church.
 
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Nothing like that. The nicean creed is a product of long time discussions in the church in the first centuries. They did not get the doctrine falling upon them from heaven at once.

Yes, the truth had to be derived from various places in the Bible and from the apostolic tradition of the first church.

No. What is the ultimate source that they derived that truth from?
The Scriptures, .... yes?
 
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solid_core

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No. What is the ultimate source that they derived that truth from?
The Scriptures, .... yes?
No, Jesus, God.

And from Him, apostles got it. Then, through the Holy Spirit, they got more theological informations. Then they taught others and wrote it down. Then the others taught others and after some time, they disputed over it and we got the Nicean Creed.

If you think they had the KJV or Erasmus' Latin-Greek edition, then no.
 
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No, Jesus, God.

And from Him, apostles got it. Then, through the Holy Spirit, they got more theological informations. Then they taught others and wrote it down. Then the others taught others and after some time, they disputed over it and we got the Nicean Creed.

If you think they had the KJV or Erasmus' Latin-Greek edition, then no.

No doubt the Scriptures were inspired by God. That is what 2 Timothy 3:16 says. So again, besides God, where did believers get the truth of the Trinity from? Was it a vision? A dream? God talking to them directly? I believe they got it from the Holy Scriptures. Do you disagree?
 
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DamianWarS

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Well, there are no original manuscripts of the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek anymore. There are only copies. Do you believe these copies are the perfect Word of God? Or do you think they have mistakes in them, too?
Well, the KJV is translated off them so if there is flaws then through inheritance the KJV is flawed, if there are no flaws then you've answer your own question. Your preservation theory doesn't just work for 1611 onwards it must also include before 1611.
 
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No doubt the Scriptures were inspired by God. That is what 2 Timothy 3:16 says. So again, besides God, where did believers get the truth of the Trinity from? Was it a vision? A dream? God talking to them directly? I believe they got it from the Holy Scriptures. Do you disagree?
The Holy Scriptures were given by apostles. So they got it from apostles, by two ways: from Scriptures and from the church.

I am not sure where you are heading with this... how is it related to the KJV or Erasmus? So lets say, for the sake of discussion, that the church knew nothing about Trinity, had no other Christian writings around and simply found it in the Bible in the 3rd century. What is your next point, then?
 
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No doubt the Scriptures were inspired by God. That is what 2 Timothy 3:16 says. So again, besides God, where did believers get the truth of the Trinity from? Was it a vision? A dream? God talking to them directly? I believe they got it from the Holy Scriptures. Do you disagree?

One must realize that when this was written, the only thing considered scripture was the TaNaK.
 
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DamianWarS

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You can even see Kurt Aland with the pope in certain pictures.
If you are Catholic, then by all means, trust these two men, and their Greek NT.
Who exactly do you think made the Greek base text the KJV is translated from? It was a Erasmus, a devote Catholic who recognized the need for reform but felt it could be done within the Catholic church not outside of it. Who do you think is responsible for the Hebrew portion the KJV is translated from? It was a group of Jewish scholars named the Masoretes in the 7-10th century who rejected Christianity and continues to be the authoritative Hebrew/Aramaic text for Judaism today.
 
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Who exactly do you think made the Greek base text the KJV is translated from? It was a Erasmus, a devote Catholic who recognized the need for reform but felt it could be done within the Catholic church not outside of it. Who do you think is responsible for the Hebrew portion the KJV is translated from? It was a group of Jewish scholars named the Masoretes in the 7-10th century who rejected Christianity and continues to be the authoritative Hebrew/Aramaic text for Judaism today.

No. Erasmus was not a devote Catholic.

Chick.com: Was Erasmus a "good" Roman Catholic?

Also, the disciples chosen by Jesus were Jews, and Paul was a Jew, and Jesus was a Jew.
 
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That's besides the point, it's that you don't believe God could use them

They were seeking to make a Word that is more in line with their occult like beliefs. So I highly doubt it.

Put yourself in the enemy's shoes a moment. Don't think the devil would try and corrupt and or change the Word of God in a subtle way?
 
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Well, the KJV is translated off them so if there is flaws then through inheritance the KJV is flawed, if there are no flaws then you've answer your own question. Your preservation theory doesn't just work for 1611 onwards it must also include before 1611.

I believe the Cambridge Edition (circa 1900) is the final pure Word of God, and that there were seven purifications (seven editions including the 1611). This fits Scripture that says that His Word is purified seven times.
 
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DamianWarS

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They were seeking to make a Word that is more in line with their occult like beliefs. So I highly doubt it.

Put yourself in the enemy's shoes a moment. Don't think the devil would try and corrupt and or change the Word of God in a subtle way?
Do you have examples of how the Greek text sought to align itself more with occult practices? Anyone can claim the devil is in it (I could claim that with the KJV) but the claim itself is meaningless without the proof.
 
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DamianWarS

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I believe the Cambridge Edition (circa 1900) is the final pure Word of God, and that there were seven purifications (seven editions including the 1611). This fits Scripture that says that His Word is purified seven times.
Right... it's still translated from the TR
I believe the Cambridge Edition (circa 1900) is the final pure Word of God, and that there were seven purifications (seven editions including the 1611). This fits Scripture that says that His Word is purified seven times.
Regardless what edition it is, it's still translated from the same base text. If it's good, it's base text is better.
 
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