John 9:3 meaning? (Jesus heals the man born blind.)

[escapee]

John 9:3 3"Neither this man nor his parents sinned," said Jesus, "but this happened so that the works of God might be displayed in him.

Does this mean that the man was born blind specifically so that Jesus can heal him?

Or does this mean a Buddhist type carmical effect of Jesus?

Or does this mean, that this is a testimony that the devil can control your mind and make you agree to your pain before you are even born?

Or that when you get born, you get disconnected from God and connected to the devil automatically, and if somebody later doesn't succeed to explain the Word to you sufficiently enough, then you are stuck?

Or does this mean, that by being disabled and unable to influence the world, you are actually doing God's work, by not adding to the damage and sin, that everyone else keeps piling?

Your theory?

 

[Carl Emerson]

It means God allowed this disfunction knowing Jesus would heal him and in so doing testify to Gods Glory for thousands of years later.

We cant assume there was some demonic activity, Jesus certainly didn't deal with his condition by releasing him from demons. This is a simply healing from a physical condition.

 

[mark kennedy]

It means not all misfortune is deserved, remember Job? Confucius told a story about a prince who passrs a common man chnging a wheel on his wagon. He asks the prince for help but he responds, you must have done something in a previous life and he should not interfere. Your kids come out perfect but this guys son is blind, they must have sinned. Lazarus and the rich man come to mind.

He could have been unfortunate and the Lord speaking hyperbolic. God could have known him from the womb and choose him for this testimony. We really don't know but take a good look at James 2 and ask yourself, what are the required good works? I'll give you a hint, what is the royal law? Because a question likw this gets a lot easier.

I could go on for pages but it would just drift into the stacks. Fate is more fun, specuation is more intellectually satisfying. We don't know why he was blind but did you know extraordinary health was part of the promise of the Law?

 

[Daniel Marsh]

John 9:3 3"Neither this man nor his parents sinned," said Jesus, "but this happened so that the works of God might be displayed in him.

Does this mean that the man was born blind specifically so that Jesus can heal him?

Or does this mean a Buddhist type carmical effect of Jesus?

Or does this mean, that this is a testimony that the devil can control your mind and make you agree to your pain before you are even born?

Or that when you get born, you get disconnected from God and connected to the devil automatically, and if somebody later doesn't succeed to explain the Word to you sufficiently enough, then you are stuck?

Or does this mean, that by being disabled and unable to influence the world, you are actually doing God's work, by not adding to the damage and sin, that everyone else keeps piling?

Your theory?

so, Jesus can heal him

 

[Mark51]

Jesus’ words showed that neither the man nor his parents were responsible for his blindness. (John 9:3) This contradicts reincarnation, which implies that disabilities depend on sins from a former life. The point that nobody can sin before being born was also made by Paul.-Romans 9:11.

So Jesus gave no support to the idea that the man was being punished for sins committed in a previous life. Jesus knew that all humans inherit sin, but they inherit the sin of Adam, not sins they committed before they were born. Because of Adam’s sin, all humans are born physically imperfect, subject to sickness and death.-Romans 5:12.

Notice, too, that Jesus did not say that God had deliberately caused the man to be born blind so that Jesus could come along and heal him some day. This would be a cruel act that would bring reproach to God’s name and would not bring him praise. Rather, the miraculous cure of the blind man served to “…made manifest…in harmony with God.” (John 3:16) Like the many other cures Jesus performed, it reflected God’s sincere love for suffering mankind and confirmed the trustworthiness of His promise to bring an end to all human sickness and suffering in His due time.-Isaiah 33:24.

 

[escapee]

Jesus’ words showed that neither the man nor his parents were responsible for his blindness. (John 9:3) This contradicts reincarnation, which implies that disabilities depend on sins from a former life. The point that nobody can sin before being born was also made by Paul.-Romans 9:11.

So Jesus gave no support to the idea that the man was being punished for sins committed in a previous life. Jesus knew that all humans inherit sin, but they inherit the sin of Adam, not sins they committed before they were born. Because of Adam’s sin, all humans are born physically imperfect, subject to sickness and death.-Romans 5:12.

Notice, too, that Jesus did not say that God had deliberately caused the man to be born blind so that Jesus could come along and heal him some day. This would be a cruel act that would bring reproach to God’s name and would not bring him praise. Rather, the miraculous cure of the blind man served to “…made manifest…in harmony with God.” (John 3:16) Like the many other cures Jesus performed, it reflected God’s sincere love for suffering mankind and confirmed the trustworthiness of His promise to bring an end to all human sickness and suffering in His due time.-Isaiah 33:24.

Thanks! Very interesting!