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Infant baptism

TuxAme

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Just curious for those that believe in infant baptism, sprinkling, etc where did this idea come from since Jesus himself was not baptized until he was around 29-30?
Jesus didn't begin His ministry until His baptism- according to your logic, nobody should be baptized or begin their own Christian ministry until they're 29-30 themselves.
 
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LaSorcia

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I used to wonder about the validity of infant baptism. But in Acts, when someone got saved (Lydia, a jailer, etc.), they were baptized with all their household. Some will go to great lengths to insist there were no children in any of these households, but I don't buy that.
 
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ml5363

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Infants dont have a ministry, so not sure how that connects...so what is the purpose?

And why wasn't Christ baptized as infant if was proper?

nfant="TuxAme, post: 73462509, member: 404930"]Jesus didn't begin His ministry until His baptism- according to your logic, nobody should be baptized or begin their own Christian ministry until they're 29-30 themselves.[/QUOTE]
 
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ml5363

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The practice seems to have originated with Scripture, where it talks of a man being baptized with his household and the assumption is that there were young children in his home.


The story of the centurion?
 
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St_Worm2

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Hi @ml5363, there are verses/passages that talk about baptizing "households" .. e.g. Acts 16:14-15; 1 Corinthians 1:16 (so children would be assumed in these passages). That said, I don't know of any passages specifying that infants were supposed to be baptized (of course, neither are there any that tell us not to do so, at least, not directly anyway).

Yours and His,
David
p.s. - the Didache is of not very helpful in this case. In fact, if anything, it seems to support believer's [credo] baptism, not paedobaptism (since it recommends "fasting" for a couple of days prior to one's baptism).

edit: the Didache (VII) does show us that "pouring" water for baptism was an acceptable practice in the 1st Century.
 
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Basil the Great

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Scripture never indicates a baby being baptized and definitely not sprinkled with water as a form of baptism.
Scripture never specifically refers to infant baptism. However, the practice is quite ancient, apparently going back to the Early Church. Just how far back the practice goes I do not think we can say. Does it go back to the first generation after Jesus? This we do not know and probably never will. Is it possible that the Early Christians got it wrong when they adopted the practice of Infant Baptism? I suppose that such is possible, but not if one believes that the Holy Spirit did lead the Early Christians into all truth.
 
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ml5363

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Even in New testament, some of the first churches we're already getting away from what Christ and the disciples were traching..

UOTE="Basil the Great, post: 73462548, member: 240502"]Scripture never specifically refers to infant baptism. However, the practice is quite ancient, apparently going back to the Early Church. Just how far back the practice goes I do not think we can say. Does it go back to the first generation after Jesus? This we do not know and probably never will. Is it possible that the Early Christians got it wrong when they adopted the practice of Infant Baptism? I suppose that such is possible, but not if one believes that the Holy Spirit did lead the Early Christians into all truth.[/QUOTE]
 
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TuxAme

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Infants dont have a ministry, so not sure how that connects...so what is the purpose?

And why wasn't Christ baptized as infant if was proper?

nfant="TuxAme, post: 73462509, member: 404930"]Jesus didn't begin His ministry until His baptism- according to your logic, nobody should be baptized or begin their own Christian ministry until they're 29-30 themselves.
The gospels don't attribute any words to the infant Jesus (and John the Baptist wasn't much older than Him, so he wouldn't have been around to do it), so He couldn't have told anyone to.

But you still ignore what I said. According to your logic, nobody should be baptized until their thirties. Additionally, those who have just been baptized could not be bound by any of His teachings until the time that they would have been revealed to His first disciples. For example, one mustn't receive communion until three years after their baptism because Jesus didn't have the Last Supper until about three years after His ministry began.

Is this what you believe?
 
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TuxAme

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No but baptism is a way to show that someone has accepted Christ...not to save them
What about circumcision? The infant boys of Israel (including Jesus) were circumcised- thereby entering into God's covenant- despite not having made the decision to themselves. It was made for them by their parents, who obeyed the Mosaic Law. "Personal acceptance" isn't the standard that God set for us in the past, and we have no reason to believe that He has changed His mind.
 
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TuxAme

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Even in New testament, some of the first churches we're already getting away from what Christ and the disciples were traching..
You're so willing to say that the very first Christians taught erroneously, but don't seem so willing as to accept that your own leaders do so.

Where do your leaders and the founders of your particular denomination get their authority to proclaim that the first Christians didn't know what they were doing?
 
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ItIsFinished!

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Does Scripture anywhere say that infants are not to be baptized?
No it doesn't, nor does it state they should be.
Babies and young children cannot intellectually make the decision (understand properly) to accept Christ as Saviour first , then make the decision to be baptized secondly.
Baptism is an outward picture of the gospel one has received.
The death
The burial
The resurrection
Baptism comes after one has received salvation and not for salvation.
As another poster pointed out , why wasn't Jesus Christ baptized as a baby?
 
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TuxAme

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No it doesn't, nor does it state they should be.
Babies and young children cannot intellectually make the decision (understand properly) to accept Christ as Saviour first , then make the decision to be baptized secondly.
Baptism is an outward picture of the gospel one has received.
The death
The burial
The resurrection
Baptism comes after one has received salvation and not for salvation.
As another poster pointed out , why wasn't Jesus Christ baptized as a baby?
Prove how baptism has to be a personal, intellectual decision, considering that God didn't impose such a mandate on circumcision. Also keep in mind that circumcision and baptism are both means that God has used to welcome people into His Covenant, and that His covenants have only grown in size, never to restrict themselves from groups that were previously accepted (infants).
 
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ItIsFinished!

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Prove how baptism has to be a personal, intellectual decision, considering that God didn't impose such a mandate on circumcision. Also keep in mind that circumcision and baptism are both means that God has used to welcome people into His Covenant, and that His covenants have only grown in size, never to restrict themselves from groups that were previously accepted (infants).
I don't have to prove anything and circumcision is not the topic here.
God allows us to choose or reject.
He doesn't force His salvation upon anyone and baptism comes after salvation.
Therefore one can conclude that infant baptism is not Scriptural.
 
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Shawn Stuart

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I don't have to prove anything and circumcision is not the topic here.
God allows us to choose or reject.
He doesn't force His salvation upon anyone and baptism comes after salvation.
Therefore one can conclude that infant baptism is not Scriptural.

What about the scripture that declares the believers children sanctified.

1 Corinthians 7:14
 
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