Question about Gift of Prophecy

GingerBeer

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But I know that is not a true revelation on high because God told me so!

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Well there you have it. I received revelation and now you say I didn't and on what basis do you make the claim? You claim God told you to with a wink! That is warned against in scripture, isn't it?
Let them not wink with the eye that hate me without cause.
 
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JAL

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'feels 100% certain' is a very unreliable way to test anything as many of us should know about the unreliable and fickle nature of feelings.
(1) You overlook the primacy of conscience (felt certainty) as I discussed earlier.
(2) You overlook the inescapable tautologies. (A) Visualize. "I'm 100% certain that God wants me to do action X but I'm going to do the OPPOSITE." How well is that going to fly with God? It won't. So if a prophet is 100% certain that it's time to prophesy, he needs to do so. (B) Now let's suppose he is NOT feeling 100% certain. Should he prophesy? Should he tell people he knows for sure (100% sure) thee Word of God when he doesn't? In a nutshell should he lie? No.
Based on A and B, then, 100% certainty is both the necessary and sufficient criterion of official prophetic utterance. Of course a man need not be so strict if he is merely expressing his OPINION, with an expressed disclaimer.
(3) You're overlooking the facts of Scripture. Shall we? Hebrews 11 celebrates Abraham's attempt to murder his own son as one of the most righteous acts of human history. Only an evil man, or a psychopath, would say, "I'm not 100% certain it was God speaking but I'm going to kill my son regardless". The ONLY way to make sense of the event is to assume that the Voice game him 100% certainty. I'll remind you that he was a prophet - in fact the Hebrew word for prophet was applied to Abraham before anyone else.

And it gets even more serious. That same Voice told Moses and Joshua to slaughter seven nations, Saul and Samuel to slay the Amalekites, and David to annihilate the Philistines. And Hebrews 11 CELEBRATES all this conquering of kingdoms! Again it all implies 100% certainty.

And it also gets interesting. Heb 11 characterizes the mindset (100% certainty) of these men as FAITH! This flatly contradicts the popular view that we should aspire to acts of BLIND faith (a kind of uncertainty).
 
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JAL

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You deny Jack Deere's charge that cessationism is based on experience.
You have got that completely the wrong way round....
The problem is that so you've been TOLD, you were told by cessationists who disparage the charismatic movement that it is all based on experience rather than biblical hermeneutics. Accordingly you view our expositions through tainted spectacles that CANNOT perceive the biblical basis for a charismatic position. You've already made up your mind, and it doesn't matter how many verses are adduced to the contrary. If it's any consolation, I was indoctrinated into cessationism by the guy that led me to Christ. Looking back, am I appalled at how I used to read and interpret the relevant passages.
...It is today's charismatic and pentecostal teachers who are notorious for exegising their experiences. Instead of viewing their experiences in the light of Scripture, they interpret Scripture in the light of their experiences. Cessationists however do not embellish God's word by adding our own extra-biblical experiences and ideas to the clear teaching of scripture regarding the gifts of the Spirit. Cessationism is not an argument based on experience, but an argument drawn from scripture and confirmed by history.
Tainted spectacles. You can't even SEE that your statement was an argument from experience. To claim, as you did (to paraphrase), that, 'Cessationism is correct doctrine because I don't see the gifts manifesting after the initial apostles died and still don't see them right now' is an argument from experience. That's simply what it is. It is not an analysis of what Paul actually wrote.
 
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JAL

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No, what you are doing is eisogetically putting words into Paul's mouth. You are rewriting Eph 2:20 from
"built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets"
to
"built on the foundation [laid by] the apostles and prophets"
Here again, you're confusing my EXTRAPOLATION of words, with the words in question. Yes, of course, Paul used the word 'of' in this passage, not laid by. You seem (understandably) unaware of an ambiguity of this preposition, diverging into two possible interpretations. Consider this ambiguity: "A church built on the fruit of faith." Two possibilities:

(1) Faith is a fruit of the Spirit. Faith is thus the fruit in question. It means 'a church built on faith'.
(2) Faith PROVIDES or PRODUCES good fruit (such as hard work). It means a 'church built on fruit (hard work) provided by faith'.

So the choice here is:
(1) A church built on the apostles and prophets (as foundation)
(2) A church built on a foundation provided by (laid down by) the apostles and prophets.

The following is from a commentary called the Expositor's Greek New Testament. Option 1 below corresponds to option 1 above. Ditto of 2. You'll note the commentator's observation that option #2 (MY position) is the majority position among MODERN scholars (at least).

"The gen. is variously understood as (1) the gen. of apposition = the foundation which is or consists in the Apostles; (2) the gen. of originating cause = the foundation laid by them; (3) the possess. gen. = “the Apostles’ foundation”—in the sense of that on which they built (Anselm, Beza, etc.), or as = that on which they also were built (Alf.). The choice seems to be between (1) and (2). The former has been the view of many from Chrys. down to Von Soden and Abbott, and is favoured so far by Revelation 21:14. But the second has the suffrages of the majority of modern exegetes (Rück., Harl., Bleek, Mey., Ell., etc.). It is more in accordance with 1 Corinthians 3:10 (although it is the worth of teachers that is immediately in view there), and more especially with Romans 15:20, where the Gospel as preached by Paul appears to be the “foundation”. Here, therefore, it seems best on the whole to understand the Gospel of Christ as preached by the Apostles to be the “foundation” on which their converts were built up into the spiritual house."
 
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LostMarbels

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The problem with that idea is that Paul uses the word 'prophet' to describe someone with the gift of prophecy throughout 1 Cor 14.

The problem with forming an entire belief on one word, is it has nothing at all to do with the Holy Spirit. You can 'read' any scripture and come up with a million different opinions. Seeing that modern day prophecy is an extension of the Holy spirits ministry:

Joh 16:7 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you. 8 And he, when he is come, will convict the world in respect of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment: 9 of sin, because they believe not on me; 10 of righteousness, because I go to the Father, and ye behold me no more; 11 of judgment, because the prince of this world hath been judged.

And we look at the parallels of what the gift of prophecy is:
(1Co 14:3) But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort.

We can see those who operate in the prophetic operate in the ministry of the holy spirit. They comfort and convict in order to instruct or improve (someone) morally or intellectually. Again. This gift has nothing to do with foretelling future events.
 
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JAL

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I notice you didn't point out the fact that R&P do not see the gift of prophecy as you and I see it (speaking new revelations)...
I think you missed the posts where I dismissed 'new revelation' as a meaningless term. (My earliest posts on this thread). ALL revelation is merely furrther clarification and exposition of original revelations given to Adam and subsequent revelations thereafter, by the very nature of the case. Paul didn't see himself as teaching anything new, for example. He cites the OT to prove that his teachings represent what the OT had already said.

... but rather as 'inspired preaching' like many other older commentators do:

"And if I should have the gift of prophesying (preaching with special inspiration)," (p289)
The operative word here is 'inspiration' (as opposed to exegesis). Are you perhaps overlooking the weight and significance of the term 'inspiration' among professional theologians? Anyway it's a moot point. I wasn't concerned with aligning myself with EVERYTIHNG that R&P wrote but merely citing them as constituents of relative maturity as an endless cycle. And I corroborated this reading by quoting, subsequently, a cessationist who approvingly read R&P the same way.

So it is then hardly surprising they would say preaching continues, but only in this world. Ultimately they say it will cease, not mature into something better:

"Knowledge and prophecy are useful as lamps in the darkness, but they will be useless when the eternal Day has dawned" (p297)
Duh. MOST Continuationist views persist the gifts UNTIL HEAVEN. How that does that fact support cessationism? Seems like you're struggling to make a show of discrediting all my citations, without having much to go on.

You will note they are cessationist with regard to tongues:
"But Tongues seem to have ceased first of all the gifts." (p297)
So? Again, I don't always agree with every theological hair of every theologian cited. And? This thread is mostly about PROPHECY, not tongues.


It seems you have also misunderstood the other commentators your cited. Of course the maturity process is ongoing while the church matures as the canon is brought to completion. But that culminates in the cessation of the gift of prophecy. No commentator I've seen, cessationist or otherwise, suggests that prophecy transforms into 'mature prophethood'. You are on your own with that bizarre idea I'm afraid. I could quote about 20 other modern commentators who say more or less the same thing, but seeing as you cite Thomas and Houghton I'll leave it to them to explain themselves fully.
This assessment is too superficial. I argued:
(1) Cessationists start off with a set of assumptions and assertions that I agree with.
(2) Then at the last moment they backpedal, drawing FINAL CONCLUSIONS that contradict their original assertions and assumptions.

You then follow up with, "See, you're misrepresenting them. Their FINAL CONCLUSIONS do not confirm your position." Duh. That's the whole point of 1 and 2. Otherwise they would be continuationists, not cessationists. Again, duh. You then go onto to cite entire articles to 'prove' that these cessationists did indeed teach cessationism. Golly - thanks! I would never have guessed! Conspicuously absent is a discussion of the actual words of those writers that I MYSELF cited of them. In your next post, could you perhaps try NOT wasting everyone's time? Ironically you then accuse ME of wasting everyone's time:

Seeing as no commentator has even considered your theory as a serious proposal I think I will now leave you to your musings, rather than waste any more of my time studying your contrived arguments and refuting them.
Right. You neglect to confront the actual WORDS THAT I CITED from each of the writers, and then 'claim' that I misrepresented them. How wonderfully convenient.
 
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JAL

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Yes, the Church was 'built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets'. That fact doesn't alter simply because they are no longer with us.
Sorry that just doesn't work. If they are the foundation, and are forever removed from us, it results in a building without a foundation. Also, since Paul suggested that each new planted church needs a foundation laid, it doesn't make sense to postulate an ecclesiology devoid of apostles and prophets (if they are the foundation).

One thing you seem to have in common with most cessationists - you can't seem to make up your mind whether the foundation is:
(A) The apostles and prophets themselves OR
(B) Something laid down by them.

swordsman1 said:
The apostles equipped the church when they laid the foundation in the first century AD. After that they ceased. Their teaching is what remains and equips the church today.
So the foundation is the teaching that they laid down, such as the NT? Ok, but then you also state:

swordsman1 said:
It is the apostles and prophets themselves who are the foundation, in the same way that Christ is the cornerstone. Not their teaching per se.
So the teaching that they laid down is NOT the foundation? Isn't this the exact opposite of the previous assertion? I can't address a moving target. Please make up your mind.

The whole thing is confusing. Let's suppose the completed NT canon is the foundation. Ok, but the apostolic churches didn't HAVE a completed canon. So were they lacking a foundation? Or suffered from a partial foundation? Since that would be a horrible platform to erect a building upon, I would expect to find Paul crying out to God asking Him to complete the foundation.

My own view seems more plausible - that the foundation of any new church being planted is Christ descending as a reviving outpouring of the Holy Spirit.

In any case, if it is something laid down by apostles and prophets, this would seem to imply their perpetuity. Why so? Because we see no evidence that a novice is supposed to lay down the foundation. "As a wise masterbuilder, I have laid down the foundation" (1Cor 3:10). Certainly Eph 2:20 doesn't authorize a mere pastor to lay it down, because it doesn't say, "The foundation of apostles, prophets, and PASTORS." No. The foundation is encharged to apostles and prophets, and is laid down afresh in every region. "For no one can lay any foundation other than the one already laid, which is Jesus Christ" (3:11). This verse seems to confirm that it is laid down - and then laid down again (presumably in a different region).
 
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swordsman1

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I'm well aware that you didn't say that prophecy was childish. My argument was based on an EXTRAPOLATION of your position.

Then you extrapolated disingenuously, because I never made the slightest hint that prophecy was childish. That is your idea, not mine.
 
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OzSpen

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Well there you have it. I received revelation and now you say I didn't and on what basis do you make the claim? You claim God told you to with a wink! That is warned against in scripture, isn't it?
Let them not wink with the eye that hate me without cause.

Context mate!
 
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OzSpen

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(1) You overlook the primacy of conscience (felt certainty) as I discussed earlier.
(2) You overlook the inescapable tautologies. (A) Visualize. "I'm 100% certain that God wants me to do action X but I'm going to do the OPPOSITE." How well is that going to fly with God? It won't. So if a prophet is 100% certain that it's time to prophesy, he needs to do so. (B) Now let's suppose he is NOT feeling 100% certain. Should he prophesy? Should he tell people he knows for sure (100% sure) thee Word of God when he doesn't? In a nutshell should he lie? No.
Based on A and B, then, 100% certainty is both the necessary and sufficient criterion of official prophetic utterance. Of course a man need not be so strict if he is merely expressing his OPINION, with an expressed disclaimer.
(3) You're overlooking the facts of Scripture. Shall we? Hebrews 11 celebrates Abraham's attempt to murder his own son as one of the most righteous acts of human history. Only an evil man, or a psychopath, would say, "I'm not 100% certain it was God speaking but I'm going to kill my son regardless". The ONLY way to make sense of the event is to assume that the Voice game him 100% certainty. I'll remind you that he was a prophet - in fact the Hebrew word for prophet was applied to Abraham before anyone else.

And it gets even more serious. That same Voice told Moses and Joshua to slaughter seven nations, Saul and Samuel to slay the Amalekites, and David to annihilate the Philistines. And Hebrews 11 CELEBRATES all this conquering of kingdoms! Again it all implies 100% certainty.

And it also gets interesting. Heb 11 characterizes the mindset (100% certainty) of these men as FAITH! This flatly contradicts the popular view that we should aspire to acts of BLIND faith (a kind of uncertainty).

Don't you understand irony and being facetious?
 
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swordsman1

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Acts? How about all 4 gospels PLUS Acts PLUS the writings of Paul? Given that Luke-Acts ALONE is 25% of the NT, I'd say that's pretty huge.

The gospels? How much of the gospels is concerned with the charismatic gifts? I can think of only one verse in the controversial long ending of Mark. I don't think we can say the 70 disciples were healing via a gift of the Spirit when the Spirit had not yet been given. So outside of historic narratives in Acts, all we have is 1 Cor 12-14 and 3 or 4 scattered verses elsewhere.

And as for your dismissal of Acts as non-didactic, you should read up on contemporary scholarship about this

Contemporary hermeneutics leaves much to be desired in my opinion, especially the trend towards the heinous redaction criticism approach that denies the inerrancy of scripture. Far better to stick to with the tried and tested grammatical-historical method, especially when it comes to the book of Acts.

particularly the writings of Roged Stronstad, Howard Ervin, and James B. Shelton (but many more as well). Let's begin with a little gem from Stronstad (and believe me, he's got tons of them).

Stronstad, Ervin, and Shelton are all Pentecostals! Of course they would want a hermeneutic that draws doctrine and practice from the unique historical events in Acts so they can claim such activity belongs in the church today. Such fallacious techniques are the only way Pentecostalism can support its controversial doctrines.
 
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swordsman1

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How can a (quantitative) increase from prophesying 'in part' (ek merous in the Greek) approaching to 'in full' be a CESSATION? That makes zero sense and therefore flatly contradicts what Paul actually wrote. You're reading the passage with a preconceived agenda concerning a 'completed canon' - that is NEVER MENTIONED IN THE PASSAGE! What the passage DOES mention, however, is prophecy, and the anticipation of the (quantitative) fullness thereof.

Try reading what Paul actually wrote rather than reading your own agenda into the text...... There is no increase in what is "in part" - what is "in part" disappears!

For we know in part and we prophesy in part, but when completeness comes, what is in part disappears.

A further subtle clue is given in the previous verse, which you repeatedly ignore:

But where there are prophecies, they will cease;
 
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JAL

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The gospels? How much of the gospels is concerned with the charismatic gifts? I can think of only one verse in the controversial long ending of Mark. I don't think we can say the 70 disciples were healing via a gift of the Spirit when the Spirit had not yet been given. So outside of historic narratives in Acts, all we have is 1 Cor 12-14 and 3 or 4 scattered verses elsewhere.
Wow. This is really a narrow-minded outlook. You really DO need to read up on some of the scholars mentioned. The gospels are FULL of charismatic allusions. Are your spectacles really that tainted? Is it really possible for a student of Scripture to be that blind? Luke is probably the most charismatic of them all, but let's just look at Mark 1. ONE CHAPTER. Verse 1 begins like this:

“I will send my messenger ahead of you" (a reference understood to possibly refer to the PROPHET Elijah but at least here to the PROPHET John the Baptist). So in this first verse prophethood is already alluded to. Need I continue? Moving on to verse 8:

"I baptize you withe water, but he will baptize you withf the Holy Spirit.”

In this verse John FORETELLS A FUTURE EVENT. A classic manifestation of a prophetic anointing. Specifically, he foretells an outpouring which, in the TRADITION of the biblical historians, is most likely to be a CHARISMATIC outpouring being passed from Christ to His disciples (even as Elijah passed on a double-portion of his own prophetic anointing to Elisha). So that's a total of TWO more allusions to the prophetic.

Moving on to verses 10-11.

10Just as Jesus was coming up out of the water, he saw heaven being torn open and the Spirit descending on him like a dove.11And a voice came from heaven: “You are my Son, whom I love; with you I am well pleased.”

This is a charismatic VISION of heaven. It is ALSO a face-to-face vision of God (seeing the Holy Spirit with the naked human eyes, if Augustine is any authority on the matter). And then a voice from heaven. And the anointing descending upon Christ was a prophetic anointing. That's a total of four MORE charismatic references. I've counted seven so far. Moving on.

"At once the Spirit sent him out into the wilderness, 13and he was in the wilderness forty days". I'm not even a redaction-critic scholar but even I can see tons of allusions here to prophets such as Moses and Elijah being led out to places by God, or on a mountain, often for 40 days, where they got to know Hi better. That makes 7 so far. Verses 14-15:

"Jesus went into Galilee, proclaiming the good news of God. 15“The time has come,” he said. “The kingdom of God has come near. Repent and believe the good news!”

This is a manifestation of a prophetic anointing. For one thing, by prophetic revelation this young man recognizes Himself as the Messiah, as the Son of God, as the fulfillment of the ages . That makes 8.

"As Jesus walked beside the Sea of Galilee, he saw Simon and his brother Andrew casting a net into the lake, for they were fishermen. 17“Come, follow me,” Jesus said, “and I will send you out to fish for people.” 18At once they left their nets and followed him.

So a man walks up to you tomorrow and claims to be God. Are you going to follow him? Sounds stupid, right? Now were the disciples STUPID to follow Him? Recall that I said a prophetic anointing tends to impart 100% certainty to the audience. Based on that convicting power, they RIGHTLY followed Him. It wasn't stupid at all. That's a total of 9 so far. Actually 10 because John the Baptist wielded that same convicting power. Some crazy-looking dude running around the desert eating locust and wild honey saying he wants to BAPTIZE you? Huh? WHY would you follow him, unless you're a total idiot? Maybe because his prophetic anointing is CONVICTING you? Moving on.

At verses 19-20 He again draws on His convicting power to call more disciples. That makes 11.

"They went to Capernaum, and when the Sabbath came, Jesus went into the synagogue and began to teach. 22The people were amazed at his teaching, because he taught them as one who had authority, not as the teachers of the law.

Authority? WHY did they FEEL CERTAIN it was authoritative? Surely another reference to the convicting power of a prophetic anointing. That makes 12. At verses 23-27 Jesus casts out a devil. That's 13 so far.

At verses 29 to 31 He heals a sickness. That's 14. Take a look at 32 and 33:

"That evening after sunset the people brought to Jesus all the sick and demon-possessed. 33The whole town gathered at the door, 34and Jesus healed many who had various diseases. He also drove out many demons, but he would not let the demons speak because they knew who he was."

There's about 3 distinct allusions to the charismatic in that one paassage. I'd say we're up 17 total. Verse 39:

"He traveled throughout Galilee, preaching in their synagogues and driving out demons."

That's 18. At verses 40 through 41 He heals a leper. That's 19. And we haven't even made it to chapter 2 yet.

Now here's one implication. If Scripture does NOT want us to be charismatic, it seems to be doing a horrible job of so indicating. Because it is through-and-through charismatic. Only a person wearing cessationist blinders could possibly fail to see how charismatic is the text.

No doubt you'll find some excuse to dismiss all this evidence. You'll claim, for example, that Jesus is 'special', that He can't possibly count as a model for us (His followers!!!!). Yet His followers DID carry on His legacy in Acts - they prophesied, they drew crowds, they cast out devils, and healed the sick. You'll dismiss it all due to the blinders. You've already dismissed MOST of the New Testament as didactically empty and void, because you evidently think God is stupid enough to publish massive amounts of Scripture with zero didactic value, thus wasting our time.

Contemporary hermeneutics leaves much to be desired in my opinion, especially the trend towards the heinous redaction criticism approach that denies the inerrancy of scripture. Far better to stick to with the tried and tested grammatical-historical method, especially when it comes to the book of Acts.
Your comments have only FURTHER convinced me of your need to take a look at modern scholarship.


Stronstad, Ervin, and Shelton are all Pentecostals!
These are scholars of the highest order. You know what that means, right? It means that they frequently cite NON-charismatic scholars to prove their points. Also I'm a little leery on how you lump all three of these scholars together. The Pentecostal movement sees tongues everwhere. Stronstad and Shelton mostly do research on how the OT charismatic tradition - hundreds of years of prophethood - is expressly manifested in NT writings. One important theological ramification is that their analysis seems pretty devastating to most kinds of dispensational dichotomies, that is, the notion that Spirit-dynamics worked ONE way in the OT, and an entirely NEW way in the NT.

Of course they would want a hermeneutic that draws doctrine and practice from the unique historical events in Acts...
Um...Yes. Paul said that all Scripture is didactic. Yes, so that would mean that it's useful for learning both doctrine and practice. What we probably SHOULDN'T do is IGNORE, or turn a deaf ear and a blind eye to, most of the canon, as you seem to have expressly done in this debate.

...so they can claim such activity belongs in the church today. Such fallacious techniques are the only way Pentecostalism can support its controversial doctrines.
Examinations of scripture. Yes, that's a HIGHLY fallacious technique. I'm very much ashamed of these scholars. You need to avoid such diabolic techniques.
 
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Senkaku

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I think you might be mistaking 'clear' with being 'easily understood'. The analogy of an unclear mirror that Paul uses was to show that prophecy did not provide a complete and full picture of God's revelation to man (it was like seeing someone dimly in an poor mirror), whereas it's replacement would provide a full and complete picture (like seeing someone face to face). It doesn't necessarily mean it would be easy to understand.

not sure you understand what Paul is saying here, look at the verse

"For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known."

then (when we fully know) we shall know even as also I am known. can you look at yourself with surety and say "yeah, I exist, no question about it" that's the level of understanding he's talking about. if someone meets you, they can't argue your existence, you yourself can acknowledge your own existence without argument or doubt. your existence can not be debated. mind you also he used the word "fully". if I had a cup that was 99% full, it is not full, it is partial. in order for it to be full means there is no empty space inside. when you eat, if you eat too much, you get full and can't fit anymore. full means complete, no room for anything else. he uses the words complete, perfect and full to describe this stage, none of these words are partial in any way. so the question still remains, only with more qualifiers, those being perfect, complete and fully. these are the words used to describe it, anything else is not in the text.
 
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JAL

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Try reading what Paul actually wrote rather than reading your own agenda into the text...... There is no increase in what is "in part" - what is "in part" disappears!

For we know in part and we prophesy in part, but when completeness comes, what is in part disappears.

A further subtle clue is given in the previous verse, which you repeatedly ignore:

But where there are prophecies, they will cease;
Of course what is in part disappears. If I prophesied in part yesterday and, having matured, can now prophesy at a higher level, why would I continue to prophesy in part? And yes, the prophecies that I spoke yesterday have come to a cease, I certainly don't want to go back there, now that I've matured to prophesying maturely. You conveniently continue to ignore the cessationist statements I cited in support of this interpretation.

I'm the one with the agenda? Paul used an analogy to make his point, but you keep avoiding its implications, because you don't like them. Again, Paul mentioned 3 gifts prophecy, knowledge, and tongues. And three babe activities speaking, thinking, reasoning. He transitions the babe to a man. Did the babe activities cease? Only in the sense of the immature renditions ceasing. He MATURED in those three activities. Why would Paul take the time to enumerate three separate activities if they aren't didactically central to the point that he wishes to make?
 
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JAL

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Then you extrapolated disingenuously, because I never made the slightest hint that prophecy was childish. That is your idea, not mine.
"When I became a man, I put away childish things" (1Cor 13:11). The cessationist claim is that the 'childish' things put away upon maturity are the gifts of prophecy, tongues, and knowledge, superseded by exegesis as MATURE knowledge. This implies that the prophetic anointing (such as Christ and Paul had), afforded childish knowledge. The position is a contradiction in terms, for starters, because if Paul (et. al.) wrote the gospels and epistles informed by childish/immature knowledge, then even the NT canon is childish/immature knowledge. Secondly, it insinuates that the holders of the canon have mature knowledge compared to Christ's childish prophetic anointing, which sounds like heresy to me. Thirdly the position is totally ludicrous. To suggest that fallible exegesis has more potential than infallible prophetic revelation to provide mature knowledge is so absurd and self-contradictory that only a preconceived agenda would even attempt to go there.
 
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elbato

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What is the Gift of Prophecy, and has it ceased?

Is it to be used in churches today?
When Paul said "I wish that you all had the gift of prophecy" he wasn't referring to the ability to fore tell the future. He was referring to the gift of preaching and spreading the gospel.
 
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swordsman1

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Most prophets did not prophesy 24/7. But they were still believers, right? As such, they hear His voice like ALL believers do. Meaning, they didn't always, at every single millisecond, hear Him perfectly LOUD AND CLEAR. At moments they had to be satisfied with ORDINARY degrees of revelation, wherein one cannot really make out, for sure, precisely what God is saying. (Actually one value of the Bible is that it can amplify the voice a bit, it's just like if you read the textbook before a lecture and thus can make out what the lecturer is saying, if he is speaking at low volume, better than those around you).

Thoughts popping into your head is not God giving you a prophecy. Prophecy is God speaking actual words to the prophet. It is "Thus says the Lord:<message>". There is never any doubt it was God who spoke. There wasn't some sliding scale of certainty where the prophet would deliberate as to whether God actually spoke to him or not. Nowhere in scripture does a prophet say "I think the Lord is saying". Anything given as a prophecy that originates from the prophet's own mind was a false prophecy:

Jeremiah 23:16. This is what the Lord Almighty says: “Do not listen to what the prophets are prophesying to you; they fill you with false hopes. They speak visions from their own minds, not from the mouth of the Lord."
 
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LostMarbels

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Try reading what Paul actually wrote rather than reading your own agenda into the text...... There is no increase in what is "in part" - what is "in part" disappears!

For we know in part and we prophesy in part, but when completeness comes, what is in part disappears.
Here, on this temporal earth we only see and can only speak in part; not yet having the full revelation of God. This also holds to "seeing through a glass, darkly", but the second part of that is: but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.

Huh, 'then', as in latter or future event. Not now but 'then'. Let's look at Rev 22:4.
Rev 22:4 And they shall see his face; and his name shall be in their foreheads.

At the point in time where we stand before God, "Face to face", all spiritual gifts will cease, being pointless now that you are in the presence of God, but agape love will continue forever. Because... God is love.

A further subtle clue is given in the previous verse, which you repeatedly ignore: But where there are prophecies, they will cease;

Charity (agape) never faileth. It is a permanent and perpetual grace, lasting as eternity; whereas the extraordinary gifts of the spirit are of temporal/worldly continuance. They, the gifts, only exist to edify the church here on earth, and that only for a time in which we have not yet been "made perfect"; but in heaven they would all be superseded, Because we will be made perfect and stand before the very seat and element of love: God.

 
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