- Apr 7, 2012
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Yes I did. Your argument, your position, your objection is uninformed, unsupported, irrelevant and immaterial therefore do not merit consideration. One verse does not determine the meaning of a word. You are trying to make a grammatical argument based on only one verse. Your argument "One negative cancels any number of positives." is false. That may be true for "red cars' but it is not true in language. As I have shown with verses where Jesus used hyperbole. There are verses where a stone is literally a stone but Peter was not a stone when Jesus called him one.
Jesus said the Law and the Prophets were until John.
16 The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it. (Lk. 16:16 KJV)
Paul said the Aaronic Priesthood ended.
11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
15 And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
16 Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life.
17 For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
18 For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof.
19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.1 (Heb. 7:11-19 KJV)
So Jesus said the Law was until John and Paul said that the priesthood was change and brought to an end. Yet, we see that the English translators translate "aionion" as forever regarding an ordinance of the Mosaic Law concerning Aaron and His sons.
For the wave breast and the heave shoulder have I taken of the children of Israel from off the sacrifices of their peace offerings, and have given them unto Aaron the priest and unto his sons by a statute for ever from among the children of Israel. (Lev. 7:34 KJV)
So, which is it? Did it end as Jesus and Paul said or is it forever as the English translators say?
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