Is God Yahweh,Jehovah or LORD?

[Tony Hyman]

I was interested how to learn how each of us here understands God's "name" as used in various Bibles, out of the three choices above?

 

[TaylorSexton]

These aren't choices; they are merely different rendering of the same word יְהוָה. This is God's revealed proper name in Scripture. However, because of Jewish superstition regarding the pronouncing of the divine name, the proper way to pronounce it has been, according to most, long lost. Therefore, most English translations render it "the LORD" to match the way most Jews read the name: when they come across it, they either say "the Name" or אֲדֹנָי, which means "my Lord." Some English translations, however, transliterate the word into the most common assumption of how it was pronounce, which is Yahweh. Older English translations, such as the KJV and the ASV, transliterate it as "Jehovah," as that was their way of understanding how to pronounce the divine name.

These are all renders or transliterations of the same word, however, so there really is no "choice." God's proper name is יְהוָה.

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

I was interested how to learn how each of us here understands God's "name" as used in various Bibles, out of the three choices above?

YeHoVaH

 

[Der Alte]

In Hebrew the creator's name is יהוה which is equivalent of the English letters YHWH. Hebrew has no vowels only consonants.

Jewish Encyclopedia-Names of God
Of the names of God in the Old Testament, that which occurs most frequently (6,823 times) is the so-called Tetragrammaton, Yhwh (יהוה), the distinctive personal name of the God of Israel. This name is commonly represented in modern translations by the form "Jehovah," which, however, is a philological impossibility (see Jehovah). This form has arisen through attempting to pronounce the consonants of the name with the vowels of Adonai (אדני = "Lord"), which the Masorites have inserted in the text, indicating thereby that Adonai was to be read (as a "keri perpetuum") instead of Yhwh.
In appearance, Yhwh (יהוה) is the third person singular imperfect "kal" of the verb ( הוה ("to be"), meaning, therefore, "He is," or "He will be," or, perhaps, "He lives," the root idea of the word being, probably, "to blow," "to breathe," and hence, "to live." With this explanation agrees the meaning of the name given in Ex. iii. 14, where God is represented as speaking, and hence as using the first person—"I am" (אהיה, from ( היה, the later equivalent of the archaic stem ( הוה). The meaning would, therefore, be "He who is self-existing, self-sufficient," or, more concretely, "He who lives," the abstract conception of pure existence being foreign to Hebrew thought.
Jewish Encyclopedia online​

[color-white].....[/color]In the KJV, and some other versions, the divine Grammaton YHWH was represented with LORD, all caps.

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Therefore, most English translations render it "the LORD" to match the way most Jews read the name: when they come across it, they either say "the Name" or אֲדֹנָי, which means "my Lord."

HaShem (The Name) or Adonai (LORD)

 

[Baby Cottontail]

I was interested how to learn how each of us here understands God's "name" as used in various Bibles, out of the three choices above?

They ultimately mean the same thing. LORD is just how most English translations render YHWH. Yahweh is how many people probably think YHWH was pronounced, but no one knows for sure.

Someone said in a different thread that LORD is considered the scholarly consensus for what to do with the Tetragrammaton.

I have also heard people say that Yahweh is closer to being more accurate than the name Jehovah, since Jehovah has some borrowed vowels from the Hebrew word for "Lord."

Some people (like the Jehovah's Witnesses) prefer using the name "Jehovah."

It's all the same thing, though, all of them are referring to the Tetragrammaton.

 

[Fireinfolding]

HaShem (The Name) or Adonai (LORD)

Adonai (in the color red) isnt capitalized but Jehovah the proper name is (in blue) right?

Psalm 110:1 [[A Psalm of David.]] The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at myright hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.


Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

 

[Radagast]

Adonai (in the color red) isnt capitalized but Jehovah the proper name is (in blue) right?

In the Old Testament, LORD translates YHWH, and Lord translates Adonai (but of course the Jews would not pronounce the name of God when reading Scripture out loud).

In the New Testament, the same Greek word (kurios) is used for both YHWH and "lord."

 

[Fireinfolding]

In the Old Testament, LORD translates YHWH, and Lord translates Adonai (but of course the Jews would not pronounce the name of God when reading Scripture out loud).

In the New Testament, the same Greek word (kurios) is used for both YHWH and "lord."

So if the Greek makes the two words the same would mean that the Hebrew is incorrect or the Greek insufficient here?

I ask because Psalm 110:1 is specifically being quoted by Jesus (in reference to himself/the Christ) saying to them in

Luke 20:42 And David himself saith in the book of Psalms, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.

David therefore calleth him Lord, how is he then his son?

Jesus is pointing out there how the Christ (the only begotten Son of God) is made by God to be Lord as Acts 2:36 confirms the same seeing the context there and in Luke

If Jesus is quoting the psalm does that mean that the Hebrew got it wrong, or that there isnt an equal word or distinction made there that is present in the Hebrew? See what I mean?

 

[Radagast]

So if the Greek makes the two words the same would mean that the Hebrew is incorrect or the Greek insufficient here?

I ask because Psalm 110:1 is specifically being quoted by Jesus (in reference to himself/the Christ) saying to them in

Luke 20:42 And David himself saith in the book of Psalms, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.

In the Greek, the same word kurios is used twice in this verse. That can be a little confusing. Even though it's mostly the Greek Old Testament (the Septuagint) that's being quoted in the New Testament, it's often necessary to look at the Hebrew to be certain what is meant.

In another thread, we discussed how Romans 10:13 applies Joel 2:32 to Jesus. That works in the Greek partly because Paul is switching between "Lord Jesus" and "LORD" (both being kurios in the Greek).

 

[Fireinfolding]

In the Greek, the same word kurios is used twice in this verse. That can be a little confusing. Even though it's mostly the Greek Old Testament (the Septuagint) that's being quoted in the New Testament, it's often necessary to look at the Hebrew to be certain what is meant.

In another thread, we discussed how Romans 10:13 applies Joel 2:32 to Jesus. That works in the Greek partly because Paul is switching between "Lord Jesus" and "LORD" (both being kurios in the Greek).

I think I got you, you are saying that the Psalm is written incorrectly in that OT translation?

 

[Radagast]

I think I got you, you are saying that the Psalm is written incorrectly in that OT translation?

No, I'm not saying that at all.

The original psalm was in Hebrew.

The Greek translation of the psalm found in the New Testament cannot be called incorrect, because it is Scripture, but since kurios is used for both "Lord" and "LORD," an awareness of the Hebrew may be needed for full understanding.

 

[Ron Gurley]

Let's take a quick look at ALL (?) the NAMES / TITLES of "God" in the Bible:

No man has seen God the Father (pure spirit) at anytime. The TRI-UNE GOD through God the Holy Spirit and angels has been MANIFESTED to Man.
Jesus the God-Man was Deity (the logos / Word) made flesh ....without loss or change of Deity..BOTH True Man AND True God.

Neither YHWH / Yahweh / Jehovah appear in the NT of the Bible. No one ever referred to Jesus the Christ, the Divine Messiah by any of those 3 names!!

In the OT, God the Father was referred to by the following names, but NOT God the Son, NOR God the Holy Spirit.

A. Elohim = plural name: majestic and strong...Genesis 1:26; Genesis 3:22

B. Jehovah = ~YHWH = Yahweh = ~" I AM WHO I AM " = ~GOD = Self Existent One
(e.g. Exodus 3:14)

C. LORD = (~master) = (e.g. Gen 2:4 ...the LORD God made the earth and the heavens; )

D. "El" = ~GOD = Compound names, showing characteristics

1. El Elyon = most high = strongest
2. El Roi = strong see-er
3. El Shaddai = Almighty God
4. El Olam = Everlasting God

D. "Jehovah (J.) " = ~GOD = Compound names, showing characteristics

1. J. Jireh = LORD will provide
2. J. Nissi = LORD my banner
3. J. Shalom = LORD is peace
4. J. Sabbaoth = LORD of hosts
5. J. Maccaddeshcem = LORD your sanctifier
6. J. Raah = LORD my shepherd
7. J. Tsidkenu = LORD our righteousness
8. J. El Gmolah = LORD GOD of recompense
9. J. Nakeh = LORD who smites
10. J. Shammah = LORD who is present

In the NT:
1. Father (pater)
2. theos (God)
3. kurios (~master)

E.G.
John 20:28
Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord (kurios) and my God (theos)!”

Jesus the God-Man was BOTH "TRUE MAN" and "TRUE DEITY"!... a unique DUAL NATURE!!

 

[Radagast]

C. LORD = (~master) = (e.g. Gen 2:4 ...the LORD God made the earth and the heavens; )

"LORD" in all caps translates "YHWH," and YHWH is the covenant name of God.

D. "Jehovah (J.) " = ~GOD

"Jehovah" does not mean "God." In fact, "Jehovah" does not occur in the Hebrew Old Testament at all. It comes from a misunderstanding about the pronunciation of YHWH.

3. kurios (~master)

Kurios has a much wider range of meanings than "master." In particular, it is used in the New Testament to translate YHWH.

Neither YHWH / Yahweh / Jehovah appear in the NT of the Bible. No one ever referred to Jesus the Christ, the Divine Messiah by any of those 3 names!!

Not quite true. The New Testament does refer to Jesus with Old Testament quotes containing the Kurios that means YHWH.

 

[Fireinfolding]

No, I'm not saying that at all.

The original psalm was in Hebrew.

The Greek translation of the psalm found in the New Testament cannot be called incorrect, because it is Scripture, but since kurios is used for both "Lord" and "LORD," an awareness of the Hebrew may be needed for full understanding.

I think I gotcha now, the translation in the Greek would sort of trump the original Hebrew. So where the one (in the Hebrew) might make a distinction somewhat, the other (in the Greek) in certain places (where the Hebrew verses might be quoted) does not, so the newer translation (the Greek) which makes the two words (which are shown as LORD and my Lord) the same really. Well, at least where the original language might not do so in the former.

So The LORD H3068 (Hebrew Yĕhovah) said to my Lord, H113 (Hebrew 'adown) in Psalm 110:1 can just be sort of scooped up under the Greek Kyrios, two words for one word basically

Like when Jesus quotes that verse its recorded as saying in Luke 2042 The LORD G2962 (Greek kyrios) said unto my Lord, G2962 ( Greek kyrios)

Little dense here, am I catching on?

 

[Radagast]

I think I gotcha now, the translation in the Greek would sort of trump the original Hebrew

No, you still don't understand me. And I've run out of ways of rewording what I said.

 

[Fireinfolding]

"LORD" in all caps translates "YHWH," and YHWH is the covenant name of God.



"Jehovah" does not mean "God." In fact, "Jehovah" does not occur in the Hebrew Old Testament at all. It comes from a misunderstanding about the pronunciation of YHWH.



Kurios has a much wider range of meanings than "master." In particular, it is used in the New Testament to translate YHWH.



Not quite true. The New Testament does refer to Jesus with Old Testament quotes containing the Kurios that means YHWH.

No, you still don't understand me. And I've run out of ways of rewording what I said.

I called a friend to look over what you said, I'll wait on him no problem

 

[Fireinfolding]

No, you still don't understand me. And I've run out of ways of rewording what I said.

You know, I had actually mistaken you for the person I had originally posted to, because I asked one person but thought you were that person, I overlooked you were not that person.

 

[Baby Cottontail]

I have a real quick question, and I will probably post this same question in several threads that I follow & participate in, in the hopes that someone will be able to answer this.

Recently, within the past couple of days, several people have suggested in these threads on the subject of the trinity, that the trinity is off limits for discussing on this website. When I was reading through the rules for each forum, that is not the impression that I got. My understanding was that it was just non-trinitarians that cannot discuss their views against the Trinity. Not that the entire subject was completely off limits for everyone to discuss.

Have I overlooked something?

I have not heard from any mods on this, so I assumed that none of these threads were breaking site policy, nor were any of my posts in defense of the trinity.

The rules regarding discussing the trinity seem to be confusing. Could someone please clarify (preferably a mod). Are Trinitarian Christians allowed to discuss it, start threads about it, defend it when someone misunderstands the doctrine, defend it when someone tries to speak against it, etc?

Are we allowed to discuss the doctrine in private messages through the "conversations" system?

I do want to respect the rules, so if it isn't allowed, I will cease participation on these threads. If it is a completely forbidden topic, then I probably will leave this website, as I think it is an important doctrine for Christians to be able to discuss, and to help one another understand it better. It is considered one of the essential doctrines to Christian orthodoxy.

Thank you.

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

"Jehovah" does not mean "God." In fact, "Jehovah" does not occur in the Hebrew Old Testament at all. It comes from a misunderstanding about the pronunciation of YHWH.

Not sure why you said this?