- Apr 16, 2017
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Surely this isn't an error, and I'm only confused because of my lack of understanding, but in Exodus 4:20, it says "sons" even in the original hebrew when compared to the strongs it says sons as plural. The only thing is, up until this point, he only had his first son.
That, and in Exodus 4:24-25 - what?
I'm guessing that, because while he was part of Israel, he had not been raised traditionally, and so, because we are to follow as we are called, while it wasn't demanded that he be circumcised - because that's how he was when God called him, it was expected that his son was, because he had not yet been grown. Something I think He was unaware of at that time, while his wife was not. That's just my take on it, I'm open to any other interpretations on this topic however as I'm not vast in my understanding and can still learn much much more.
That, and in Exodus 4:24-25 - what?
I'm guessing that, because while he was part of Israel, he had not been raised traditionally, and so, because we are to follow as we are called, while it wasn't demanded that he be circumcised - because that's how he was when God called him, it was expected that his son was, because he had not yet been grown. Something I think He was unaware of at that time, while his wife was not. That's just my take on it, I'm open to any other interpretations on this topic however as I'm not vast in my understanding and can still learn much much more.