Limited vs unlimited atonement?

Steve Petersen

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For those who hold to the notion in the NT that 'without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sin,' how do you account for the fact that a poor person could bring grain as a sin offering rather than an animal or bird. It disproves the premise that ONLY blood atones for sin. Sin offering - Wikipedia
 
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Marvin Knox

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You ask: "Don't you think that His doing the will of the Father (namely suffering for the sins of the world and not loosing any whom the Father gives to Him and draws to Him) was satisfying to His soul?"

YES, precisely because all of whom He died for He shall LOSE NONE. Christ's satisfaction lies in the result. Of those He died for He shall LOSE NONE. NOT those He died for, some accepted and some did not and therefore lost a few.
Actually it is those whom the Father gives to Him who will be not lost. It does not say, as you say here, "those he died for He shall lose none".

"This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day." John 6:39

This is no small point since this is the very issue we are debating.

The Word of God says that He died for the sins of the entire world and out of that world those whom the Father gives to the Son will never come into judgment.

Limited Atonement proponents change that to say that He died for some of the world and the Father gives all of those to the Son.

That's a huge distinction.
NOT those He died for, some accepted and some did not and therefore lost a few.
Part of that sentence is exactly what the Word of God teaches unless misquoted as you did earlier.

And no - He will not lose any the Father gives to Him. No one says that He will lose of few.
I certainly understand the question. My thought process lies in the value of the blood of Christ. Remember, Jesus Christ was GOD in the flesh. He had all power to end all His suffering. If He chose too, He could have called legions of angels and burned up the whole planet and everything in it. Instead, He humbled Himself, willingly, and suffered THE most horrible death by anyone ever, specifically because He was sinless and perfect AND because He had the power to stop it all at any time.
What's your point?

No one disputes that - even out and out Arminians.
Now, His blood was voluntarily spilt to redeem a people, to literally buy them back.
Exactly!

"He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world" (1 John 2:1, 2).

"......God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and He has committed to us the word of reconciliation". 2 Corinthians 5:19

That word of reconciliation is to be preached to the whole world not just to the elect (as if we could know before preaching who the elect are).

"For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers." 1 Timothy 4:10

It would not be necessary to say "especially of believers" unless He is indeed the "Savior of all men".

If limited atonement proponents had their way they would like it to say, "the Savior of some men, namely only the elect".
HOW on earth could He buy back an individual by name who was known by the Father before the world began.......
I've already given you an example of a way that it could be.
.......... and then finally end up losing that individual in hell forever?
He will lose no one to Hell whom the Father gives to Him.

No one has said that.
That simply cannot be.
Yes it can and I have given you an example where all things could be reconciled to God in Christ and include the eternal judgment of God for some in that reconciled state and the glorified state before God for others.
The calling and election of God is effectual.
No one has said otherwise.

You are equating unconditional election and irresitible grace with limited atonement. They are not the same doctrines as you should understand if you subscribe to TULIP as you apparently do.
If I had to place all my trust, all my faith, all my being in ONE thing, it is the effectiveness, the absolutely perfect efficacy of the blood of Christ.....and I do.
Me too. We have no differences there. :)

But - as I have laid out before - you and I were both redeem by God some 2000 years ago and yet we spent many years as enemies of God and abided under His judgment. The same is true for all men IMO.

The difference is, of course, that you and I (among others whom the Father has given and will give to the Son) were effectively drawn to the Son and will be kept by the Son - our being (by grace alone) among the elect.

There is absolutely no scriptural reason why a person could not remain for eternity in the condtion you and I were in for many years. To say that woud be an arbitrary assumption which goes beyond what the scripture teaches - as does the doctrine of limited atonement, it being based on the same false so-called logic.
 
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EmSw

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For those who hold to the notion in the NT that 'without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sin,' how do you account for the fact that a poor person could bring grain as a sin offering rather than an animal or bird. It disproves the premise that ONLY blood atones for sin. Sin offering - Wikipedia

You are correct. Jesus forgave many people without the shedding of any blood.

Here are a few examples -

Matthew 6:14
“For if you forgive men their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you.

Mark 2:5
When Jesus saw their faith, He said to the paralytic, “son, your sins are forgiven you.”

Mark 11:26
But if you do not forgive, neither will your Father in heaven forgive your trespasses.”

Luke 5:20
When He saw their faith, He said to him, “man, your sins are forgiven you.”


Not once do we find any ' blood offering' given for forgiveness of sins in the Gospels. Nor was there any special day in which they were forgiven.

Whoever wrote Hebrews, apparently wasn't around when Jesus forgave many people of their sins, neither did he know much about sin offerings.
 
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EmSw

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Actually it is those whom the Father gives to Him who will be not lost. It does not say, as you say here, "those he died for He shall lose none".

"This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day." John 6:39

This is no small point since this is the very issue we are debating.

The key to this verse is, 'this is the will of Him Who sent Me'. We do know God's will is not always accomplished on this earth.

Luke 7:30
But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the will of God for themselves, not having been baptized by him.

John 9:31
Now we know that God does not hear sinners; but if anyone is a worshiper of God and does His will, He hears him.

Acts 13:36
“For David, after he had served his own generation by the will of God, fell asleep, was buried with his fathers, and saw corruption;

1 Thessalonians 4:3
For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you should abstain from sexual immorality;


The Pharisees did not do the will of God. God hears those who worship Him, abstains from sin, and does His will, which many do not do. David, served his generation by the will of God, but we know David didn't always do the will of God. Many, many believers throughout the ages did not do the will of God by abstaining from sexual immorality.

All these instances have to with what man does. The will of God in a man's life is accomplished through man's willingness and obedience.

So, just because it is God's will that He lose nothing, it all falls back on man's willingness and obedience.
 
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Steve Petersen

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The Pharisees did not do the will of God.

Well, some of them didn't. Some of them did. Nicodemus, Gamaliel, Paul. Also I am sure that there were probably many how identified themselves as Pharisees who were among the 'myriad of Jews who believed' as well as 'many priests who were obedient to the faith.' (cf. Acts 6:7)
 
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EmSw

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Well, some of them didn't. Some of them did. Nicodemus, Gamaliel, Paul. Also I am sure that there were probably many how identified themselves as Pharisees who were among the 'myriad of Jews who believed' as well as 'many priests who were obedient to the faith.' (cf. Acts 6:7)

Yes, you are correct. The equation totally depended upon what the man himself did.
 
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Marvin Knox

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.................. We do know God's will is not always accomplished on this earth............................................. many do not do....................All these instances have to with what man does. The will of God in a man's life is accomplished through man's willingness and obedience.
So true!
So what's your point - that the man Jesus disobeyed God just like the rest of us?:scratch:
You'd better hope that's not the case.
So, just because it is God's will that He lose nothing, it all falls back on man's willingness and obedience.
Jesus' obedience to His Father "fell back" only on His own sinless character - not on the sinful character of other men.

You appear to be arguing here for the idea that men must repent and obey God to be saved.

Of course they do.

Who says otherwise?

The topic of the thread is limited atonement vs. unlimited atonement in case you've forgotten.

I'm coming from the unlimited atonement side of the question. 5-point Calvinists are coming from the limited atonement side of the question.

I'm tempted to say that I have no idea where you are coming from. But that would be disingenuous and untrue. I know exactly where you are coming from.

As always you are trolling threads for opportunities to present your works based gospel.

This is not the thread for that. It's a different subject entirely.

There are plenty of threads for that. Please don't try to hijack this one.

Thanks!
 
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EmSw

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So true!
So what's your point - that the man Jesus disobeyed God just like the rest of us?:scratch:
You'd better hope that's not the case.

This flew right over your head, Marvin. I was saying just because it's God's will to not lose anyone, it doesn't mean all will not be lost.

Matthew 10:6
But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Matthew 15:24
But He answered and said, “I was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.”

How can sheep be lost? Where the Pharisees lost and of the house of Israel? David, who was given by God even said he was a LOST sheep. Was God's will of not losing any accomplished while David was lost?

So, yes Marvin, anyone can be a LOST sheep.

Jesus' obedience to His Father "fell back" only on His own sinless character - not on the sinful character of other men.

I am not talking about Jesus.

You appear to be arguing here for the idea that men must repent and obey God to be saved.

Well, well, well. Don't you argue that men must repent to be saved?

Luke 13:3
I tell you, no; but unless you repent you will all likewise perish.

Do you not believe what Jesus said?

The topic of the thread is limited atonement vs. unlimited atonement in case you've forgotten.

I'm coming from the unlimited atonement side of the question. 5-point Calvinists are coming from the limited atonement side of the question.

Good. I would hate to think you have 'limited' Jesus.

I'm tempted to say that I have no idea where you are coming from. But that would be disingenuous and untrue. I know exactly where you are coming from

As always you are trolling threads for opportunities to present your works based gospel.

Don't you take opportunities to present your 'dead faith' gospel also?

This is not the thread for that. It's a different subject entirely.

There are plenty of threads for that. Please don't try to hijack this one.

Thanks!

Since atonement means forgiveness, purge away, cancel, cleanse, and pardon, do you not think this is accomplished with genuine repentance?
 
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Marvin Knox

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This flew right over your head, Marvin. I was saying just because it's God's will to not lose anyone, it doesn't mean all will not be lost.
I know that is what you were saying. Trouble is that's not what the passage was saying.

But the passage talks about Jesus doing the will of the Father. That's something which I certainly hope you believe He did. Your salvation depends on it.

The will of the Father was that JESUS lose none whom the Father gives to Him.
How can sheep be lost?
We were all lost until we were justified before God through faith in the work of Jesus Christ.
Where the Pharisees lost and of the house of Israel?
"But it is not as though the word of God has failed. For they are not all Israel who are descended from Israel" Romans 9:6
David, who was given by God even said he was a LOST sheep. Was God's will of not losing any accomplished while David was lost?
We were all lost sheep before being justified before God.

Again you misquote. It was not the will of the Father that He lose none of the lost. It was the will of the Father (accomplished by Jesus) that none of the lost who were given to Jesus would be lost by Jesus.
So, yes Marvin, anyone can be a LOST sheep.
Of course. Every human being born into the fallen race was lost.
I am not talking about Jesus.
I know.
That's the problem.
The passage is talking about Jesus.
Well, well, well. Don't you argue that men must repent to be saved?........... Do you not believe what Jesus said?
You appear to be arguing here for the idea that men must repent and obey God to be saved. Of course they do. Who says otherwise?
What part of "Of course they do" can't you understand?
Good. I would hate to think you have 'limited' Jesus.
Now you seem to have gotten back on track concerning the topic of this thread - namely limited vs. unlimeted atonement.
Try to stay there or I will likely not respond to you again.
Don't you take opportunities to present your 'dead faith' gospel also?
No - I have never preached a dead faith gospel.

My gospel has always been about a salvation which comes to us by grace, through faith and manifests itself with works.
Since atonement means forgiveness, purge away, cancel, cleanse, and pardon, do you not think this is accomplished with genuine repentance?
Yes, of course.
Who has ever said that genuine repentance is not part of genuine faith? Certainly not me.:scratch:

You are bouncing around here and frankly not making much sense sometimes.

Again - you must stick to the topic at hand or I will not be responding to you again.
If you ask or talk about limited atonement vs. unlimited atonement, I will gladly enguage you here again.:)

I don't expect that you will though since you have laid out, in the past, your disbelief in the blood sacrifice and atonement of Jesus Christ at Calvary.:eek:
 
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St_Worm2

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For those who hold to the notion in the NT that 'without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sin,' how do you account for the fact that a poor person could bring grain as a sin offering rather than an animal or bird. It disproves the premise that ONLY blood atones for sin. Sin offering - Wikipedia

Hebrews 10
1 For the Law, since it has only a shadow of the good things to come and not the very form of things, can never, by the same sacrifices which they offer continually year by year, make perfect those who draw near.
2 Otherwise, would they not have ceased to be offered, because the worshipers, having once been cleansed, would no longer have had consciousness of sins?
3 But in those sacrifices there is a reminder of sins year by year.
4 For it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.

A blood sacrifice was always offered by the high priest on behalf of the entire community! However, God, as part of His forbearance with the elect who lived before Christ, allowed for individual grain offerings in regard to the poorest of the poor.

Why? Outside of the obvious reason that God could not demand from His people that which they could not afford to possess, the offerings at that time, whether they were ones of blood, or simply of grain, were all "shadows" that looked ahead to the ONLY sacrifice/offering that would actually justify/take away sins/satisfy God's wrath* against them, the shed blood* of Jesus Christ :preach:

"Without the shedding of (His) blood, there is no forgiveness" .. Hebrews 9:22

Yours and His,
David
p.s. - Christ offered Himself as a sacrifice on our behalf (without any cost to us .. e.g. Romans 6:23). So there is no sacrifice we can make, no offering we can give out of our own possessions, and certainly no good work that we can do, that will make the slightest bit difference in regard to our reception/possession of eternal life .. e.g. John 3:16; John 3:18; John 5:24; Romans 4:5; Ephesians 2:8-9; Titus 3:5; 1 John 5:13.

Forgiveness is now ours for the asking (and we always receive it from Him at no cost to us personally), but the basis upon which He graciously chooses to forgive us came at a VERY GREAT cost to Someone else!!

Romans 5
8 God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
*9 Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from the wrath of God through Him.
10 For if while we were enemies we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life.
.
 
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For those who hold to the notion in the NT that 'without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sin,' how do you account for the fact that a poor person could bring grain as a sin offering rather than an animal or bird. It disproves the premise that ONLY blood atones for sin. Sin offering - Wikipedia

Steve,

That is a good question.

First off you have to remember this is found in Hebrews which is written specifically to Jewish Christians.

The context of Heb.9: 21 Moreover he sprinkled with blood both the tabernacle, and all the vessels of the ministry. 22 And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission. 23 It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.

It is not talking specifically about the atonement offering, but the fact all things are cleansed with blood that are used in the offering. Blood is used to cleanse everything.

The NIV and KJV uses “remission” instead of forgiveness meaning:

I.release from bondage or imprisonment

II.forgiveness or pardon, of sins (letting them go as if they had never been committed), remission of the penalty

I like the concept of being released form bondage, since you can still be forgiven and imprisoned.

Going back to the question:

The Jews would realize sin offerings themselves did not have to have blood, but they were all made on a blood cleansed altar, so blood was needed.

Again it is not a blood thirsty God needing blood to forgive, but it is man needing to know his sins have been blotted out by the covering of blood. All this physical blood in the Old Testament is not for God’s sake, but is really symbolic of what Christ will be doing on the cross. Without Christ shedding of blood to personally help me (not something God needs) all this blood shedding in the OT is worthless.
 
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Late Apex

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Actually it is those whom the Father gives to Him who will be not lost. It does not say, as you say here, "those he died for He shall lose none".

"This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day." John 6:39

This is no small point since this is the very issue we are debating.

The Word of God says that He died for the sins of the entire world and out of that world those whom the Father gives to the Son will never come into judgment.

Limited Atonement proponents change that to say that He died for some of the world and the Father gives all of those to the Son.

That's a huge distinction.

Part of that sentence is exactly what the Word of God teaches unless misquoted as you did earlier.

And no - He will not lose any the Father gives to Him. No one says that He will lose of few.

What's your point?

No one disputes that - even out and out Arminians.

Exactly!

"He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world" (1 John 2:1, 2).

"......God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and He has committed to us the word of reconciliation". 2 Corinthians 5:19

That word of reconciliation is to be preached to the whole world not just to the elect (as if we could know before preaching who the elect are).

"For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers." 1 Timothy 4:10

It would not be necessary to say "especially of believers" unless He is indeed the "Savior of all men".

If limited atonement proponents had their way they would like it to say, "the Savior of some men, namely only the elect".

I've already given you an example of a way that it could be.

He will lose no one to Hell whom the Father gives to Him.

No one has said that.

Yes it can and I have given you an example where all things could be reconciled to God in Christ and include the eternal judgment of God for some in that reconciled state and the glorified state before God for others.

No one has said otherwise.

You are equating unconditional election and irresitible grace with limited atonement. They are not the same doctrines as you should understand if you subscribe to TULIP as you apparently do.

Me too. We have no differences there. :)

But - as I have laid out before - you and I were both redeem by God some 2000 years ago and yet we spent many years as enemies of God and abided under His judgment. The same is true for all men IMO.

The difference is, of course, that you and I (among others whom the Father has given and will give to the Son) were effectively drawn to the Son and will be kept by the Son - our being (by grace alone) among the elect.

There is absolutely no scriptural reason why a person could not remain for eternity in the condtion you and I were in for many years. To say that woud be an arbitrary assumption which goes beyond what the scripture teaches - as does the doctrine of limited atonement, it being based on the same false so-called logic.

Please elaborate on this:
"Yes it can and I have given you an example where all things could be reconciled to God in Christ and include the eternal judgment of God for some in that reconciled state and the glorified state before God for others."

Your entire post seems to make sense to me except for a couple things. One of them is above.

1 Timothy is an issue. I always understood "savior of all men" in a temporal sense. Anyway, let's discuss one point at a time. This website is difficult for me to answer when quotes you answer are not included in the quote I make to reply. It's a big mishmash.

Yes, I do believe in an limited atonement specifically because I cannot see how Christ could be "satisfied" at the "travail of His soul" while some of those He died for end up in hell, forever.

Thanks.
 
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Marvin Knox

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Anyway, let's discuss one point at a time......... .
One point at a time is a good idea.
Yes, I do believe in an limited atonement specifically because I cannot see how Christ could be "satisfied" at the "travail of His soul" while some of those He died for end up in hell, forever. Thanks.
His satisfaction comes soley from doing the will of the Father as it has for all of etenity.

The will of the Father is that He lose none of "those given to Him by the Father" among other things.

His satisfaction comes not from saving everyone in the entire world for whom His blood was shed. It does not say that.

As for how He could have atoned for the sins of the entire world and reconciled the entire world to Himself (those eventually saved and those eternally lost) -- I have attempted to give an example of how it may be from God's perspective in post number 16 and elsewhere.

My postion is that if there is even one other way to look at things which does not require the so called logic of limited atonement - then we should simply go with what the scriptures say and not beyond that.

The objection to that particular idea seems to stem from the idea that Christ died once for all and that eternal atonement would show Him as dying over and over again.

Eternal deaths no more follow logically from eternal atonement then eternal "lives" follow from eternal life.

Besides that eternally based suffering's possible way of looking at things - we have the lot in life of every Christian who has ever lived as a testemony.

That testemony is that people can and do live under the wrath of God for almost entire lifetimes on this earth before being justified by faith. We are not justified by the atonement of Christ at Calvary in and of itself nor are the people of the world who spend eternity in that condition justified by that atonement.

The atonement must be coupled with faith. Both Calvinists and Arminians believe that - or at least should.

I have often heard Arminians argue against Calvinistic election based on the atonement being for everyone. They say something like - "we are not saved by election -we are saved by our faith". Calvinists then rightly counter by saying that no one has ever said that election saves anyone in and of itself.

Now - in the limited atoement arguement - Calvinsts seem to make the same kind of straw man arguement against unlimited atonement by saying that if Christ died for the siins of everyone then everyone would be saved.

That is simply not true. It was not true for me and it was not true for Billy Graham. It had to be coupled with faith.

How that faith comes about is another letter or two of the TULIP. But it has nothing to do with the so called logic of the "L" in TULIP.

I find it interesting that my fellow Reformed brethren do not have any trouble saying that they were once enemies of God and abided under His just wrath even after Christ atoned for their sins until such moment they were called by grace to faith in their personal Damascus moment. But they will not allow that that may be the case eternally for those who don't happpen to be recipients of such grace.

Again - my appeal is not to subscribe to any particular way of looking at the atonement. My appeal is for Calvinists not to do that very thing and look at the atonement with blinders on.

Limited atonemet is said by Calvinists, to be a necessary logical conclusion. It is not.

The other points of TULIP are defendable IMO. But limited atonement is not.
 
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EmSw

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One point at a time is a good idea.

His satisfaction comes soley from doing the will of the Father as it has for all of etenity.

The will of the Father is that He lose none of "those given to Him by the Father" among other things.

His satisfaction comes not from saving everyone in the entire world for whom His blood was shed. It does not say that.

This verse must give you problems then -

2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance.

Why isn't He doing this will of the Father and getting satisfaction? Why is He letting some perish?
 
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St_Worm2

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This verse must give you problems then -

2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance.

Why isn't He doing this will of the Father and getting satisfaction? Why is He letting some perish?
None perish from the only group being addressed here, @EmSw. All of 2 Peter (as well the chapter and the passage that this verse is excerpted from, of course) is addressed to God's "elect", and to them alone. That's who the "us" and the "any" are referring to in v9, "saints" (those who are saints already, and those "in the making", so to speak). These are the ones the Lord is patiently waiting on (not the ones He's known would never come to faith in Christ since before the foundation of the world :preach: )!

So no worries, of ALL of those who are drawn by the Father/given to His Son (IOW, the elect), NONE will be lost/ALL will be saved .. e.g. John 6:37-40; John 6:44, 65 :amen:

1 Timothy 2:4 may be a better choice if you're looking to find a verse that could possibly cause "problems" for those of us with a Reformed view of the Atonement.

Yours and His,
David
 
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Marvin Knox

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2 Peter 3:9
"The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance."
Why isn't He doing this will of the Father and getting satisfaction?
My last answer to you - troll.

I was talking to someone about what "satisfied" God in the atonement of Jesus Christ as per Isaiah 53:11

It says, "He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied"

It is the travail of Christ's soul which satified God - not His saving everyone in the world for whom Christ died.

None the less - as usual - you mis interpret the 2 Peter passage for your own purposes.

That passage tells us what is NOT the will of God for fallen man. It is not the will of God that any should perish.

It also tells us what the will of God for fallen man is. It is that they should come to repentance.

The will of God revealed to His Servent, the unfallen man Jesus in no need of repentance, was that He should not lose any of those given to Him by the Father.
Why is He letting some perish?
Because they will not do the will of God and come to repentance.
 
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Dave-W

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I believe that the TULIP memory crutch is valid in most respects. But I disagree that limited atonement is a logical conclusion.
As I have studied TULIP, I see all 5 points as interdependent.
IOW, if you lose one of the points, you throw the whole system off.
 
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Dave-W

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It says, "He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied"

It is the travail of Christ's soul which satified God - not His saving everyone in the world for whom Christ died.
Let me give you another option:

The "travail of His soul" inaugurated the New Covenant. IT also opened the door to Gentiles being brought into the Covenant.

Seeing the billions that would come to faith in the God of the Bible via the New Covenant would be the "satisfaction."
 
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Dave-W

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None the less - as usual - you mis interpret the 2 Peter passage for your own purposes.

That passage tells us what is NOT the will of God for fallen man. It is not the will of God that any should perish.

It also tells us what the will of God for fallen man is. It is that they should come to repentance.
Indeed. The door is open to all. But the choice is ours.

I heard one minister say that in his bible study he found the only thing GOD Himself held sacred was mankind's freedom of choice.

Without that freedom of choice, statements like "Choose you this day whom you shall serve" (Josh 24.15) are meaningless.
 
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