Ignatius the Kiwi
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- Mar 2, 2013
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Jerome was one of the few of his day that could actually "read" both Hebrew AND Greek and in a position to create a Latin text.
Augustine translated no Bible - created no new translation in any language at all. He never mastered Greek and could not read Hebrew. Jerome could read both and new from the historic records and the original languages the that the apocryphal books did not belong to the accepted Canon of the OT text.
A text not at all authored by Catholics.
Most of the fathers didn't translate the scripture. It doesn't make them less of an authority on it. Despite Jerome's ability to read Hebrew he would have likely considered you among the heterodox despite your agreement with him over the canon. We should also take into consideration that there were Hebrew originals of the deuterocanons which were simply lost by the time of Jerome due to a lack of use of them by the Jews. The dead sea scrolls have confirmed there were Hebrew originals for Tobit and Enoch and certainly the Maccabees (the first book) was written in Hebrew. Beyond this i see no basis for this rule that before the New Testament Scripture could only be written in Hebrew. Truth is not limited to one language at one time.
No one ever denied that those works 'existed'.
But they are not NT text... they are not authored by Christians -- and the Jews did not retain them in their canon which they held to be fixed for over 300 years before Christ - and kept in that fixed form in the Temple in Jerusalem.
Clearly the Jews of Christ's day accepted the 5 books of Moses - and more. "The Law the Psalms and the prophets". And the Jews themselves admit to more than 5 books in scripture. Josephus is not the only one who knew that.
You have to demonstrate that the canon was decisively solved at the time of Christ before you can claim it so. I see no reason to assume there was a set list of authoritative books which one had to absolutely adhere to. There were common books, as you mention like the the Torah, Psalms and Prophets but where do we find an absolute list which is binding for all Jews regardless of religious differences? Where is the evidence that the modern Jewish Canon was kept in the temple? I have no doubt the Torah was kept there, since the temple was in the hands of the Sadducees but the whole Old Testament? I'm going to need to see some evidence.
To mention that the Old Testament was not written by Christians doesn't exactly help you either. The Old Testament community and the Church of Christ are one in the same. Why don't Christians have the authority or ability to sort out their own canon of scripture independently of the Jews who rejected Christ?
Apocryphal works cannot be inserted into the Jewish Bible "For them". They would have had to have done that.
And they did not as Josephus notes.
As for the Jews referring to those books as "a second canon" -- "deuteroncanonical" -- well... "they did not"
The idea of there being a singular Jewish canon at the time of Jesus is a contentious point as I discussed in my previous reply to Bob Ryan. Judaism was not a monolithic thing at the time of Christ and there is certainly reason to doubt that the canon was a settled thing. Josephus speaks for one particular strain of Jewish tradition which became dominant but he is not the end all source. The word Deuterocanon is obviously a roman Catholic term which in no way invalidates the meaning. It simply recognises these books are on a lesser level than the others.
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