zippy2006
Dragonsworn
- Nov 9, 2013
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That "ubiquitous consent" is not a thing. Stomp your feet and shake your Crayola stuffed hands all you want, ad hoc definitions to support paper thin syllogisms will get you nowhere.
It seems that foot-stomping is about as close to you get to an argument. Why, pray tell, isn't ubiquitous consent "a thing." What is that even supposed to mean? "Not a thing"? Is that what you say when all rationality has escaped you? Sounds a lot like foot-stomping to me.
I gave 9 examples of ubiquitous consent. Beyond that, even if every example I gave failed it would not invalidate my argument. Ubiquitous consent is obviously possible, and if it's possible that a natural state of affairs could come about which would falsify your definition, it follows that your definition is false.
I'm still waiting for anything resembling a sound syllogism from you.
I'm still waiting for you to answer the one you were given.
I don't care how many people believe something; they could all be wrong, they could all be right.
Sure, and whether they are wrong or right it does not follow that the claim is therefore disputed. Either way, you're still dead wrong.
Here's the syllogism you still haven't answered:
The burden of proof relates to disputed claims; claims which command ubiquitous consent are not disputed claims; therefore claims which command ubiquitous consent do not have the burden of proof.
Yet you claim that they do.
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