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Are there credible witnesses to the resurrection?

Ed1wolf

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dm: Yes. Yes. Yes.

That is what Paul seems to be saying. The outer man, the flesh, dies. The inner man, the spirit, lives on. Or in your analogy, the book is destroyed, but the story lives on in a new printing. Paul says in the resurrection it is the same inner person, different packaging. You say Paul says it is the same inner person, different packaging. Same thing! Have you come over to my side?

See my previous post above. I never said you were wrong about this. Just that there are other possibilities.

dm: No sir, I have not committed the Genetic Fallacy. I was merely echoing back what you said. You are the one that keeps on saying you are right because you have authorities. My standard response is to say I too have authorities, and move on to the argument they make. That is not the Genetic Fallacy.

It appears that you reject my authorities just because some are conservative Christians.


dm: Of course. This in no way refutes my claim that we have little discussion of the gospels before 140 AD, and major discussion of them after 180 AD. Of course there was a gradual buildup of interest in the gospels in the interim.

Fraid so, if top ancient scholars at the time were already making harmonizations in the mid second century, then that plainly implies that the gospels were well known long before that.


dm: I am claiming that Paul did not think the resurrected body was made of physical matter as it appears on earth (what we call molecular matter). You are claiming that Paul did not think the resurrected body was made of physical matter as it appears on earth (what we call molecular matter). Same thing! Have you come over to my side?


The only evidence you have presented for that is your argument from analogy (which I consider bogus) which you will no doubt write back again to say it is not bogus.

You may consider it bogus, but you have not proven that it is bogus and in fact you have not provided any biblical evidence that it is bogus, other than a few verses taken out of context.

dm: Whatever. Again, the point is, I see nothing in Paul's teaching that says the body cannot decay in the grave, with the person living forever in a different body.

After all that is what you believe about Paul. You believe his body has decayed in the grave, and God will make him a different replica body later on. All I am saying is that Paul may have thought Jesus experienced the same thing you think Paul will experience.

Maybe, but Christ was a slightly different case. His present body had not decayed and in order to demonstrate the power of God over death, His body was transformed in the grave and then raised. See above about continuity between the two. God has the power to reconstitute our earthly bodies and then transform it so that there is continuity between the two.


dm: No, that is flat out wrong. As I said before the outer body of the seed has the DNA of the mother, and the embryo has a different DNA. See Seed - Wikipedia . (There, I turned to your favorite source, wikipedia. It agrees with me.)

I was not referring to the outer husk. I was referring to the kernel that becomes the plant. Even Paul knew that fact. That DNA is the same as the adult plant See: How To Genetically Modify a Seed, Step By Step


dm: Right Paul dies. His body decays and is no more. Paul's spirit survives and will live on in a new body, or so Paul thought.

Perhaps Paul thought the same thing about Jesus.
No, see above about how Jesus was a slightly different case.
 
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Doubting Merle, your entire previous post seems facetious to me.

I repeatedly told you that your thinking was too black and white, that there were more options then the blue and red one, that the idea of 'spirit' you hold is anachronistic to the period.

So do I hold to Spirit survival? Yes and No, you'd have to define 'spirit' correctly. The person that characterised your thinking as of "hellenistic dualist freaks" is partially correct, if emotive. I explained that there was pervasive Greek influence in HELLENistic times, did you miss that? Those articles explain how Jewish thought evolved and where it was influenced by Greek ideas, but they are influenced BY not derived FROM as I said before. You are really twisting my words here and ignoring what I wrote.

To Second Temple Judaism there is no such thing as a dualist Spirit/Body as I repeatedly explained. This is anachronistic to Semitic thought which saw things more in a holistic manner, as my examples of the Prophets earlier indicated. A being is a composite of Ruach, Nephesh and perhaps his matter as well?, so that Pharisees saw our Ruach reunited with the Nephesh in Sheol to recreate us. Without both elements, we don't as such really exist, as Sadducees taught who denied the Resurrection.
Josephus in no way supports the 'two body view', for there are no two bodies - it is a single organism consisting of parts which have little reality separate of one another. His writing on Pharisee beliefs are clear on this point and he differentiates it from Greek beliefs. It is silly Carrier-esque sophistry to try and sneak such ideas into Josephus. It in no way supports a 'planted body and a risen body' as you characterise it, as both are not really equivalent ideas to the modern concept of 'body'. A lot is lost in translation.
Paul thus develops this doctrine by our being in Christ, thus the Ruach lives with Christ in His glorified state - hence for any of this to make sense according to Second Temple Jewish thought a bodily Resurrected Christ is not only needed but a necessity. There is no concept of separated essences as such.
You are really stuck on ideas of Body and Spirit which are really inapplicable even after multiple attempts to explain it to you. Please stop saying 'you said this now you say that' when I have been consistently explaining the same view which just does not correspond to your two artificial characterisations that for some reason you assume to be the only possible views.
Please read up on Second Temple Judaism as your whole conceptualisation of these questions is hopelessly anachronistic and as Mark Kennedy so aptly explained, non-equivalent. Why can others so easily grasp what I am saying while you would have me endlessly re-explain? This is why I think you are being duplicitous.

I am tired of extending an olive branch for a sincere discussion on this question and having you attempt to set it alight.
 
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mark kennedy

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First, you replied to a post in which I was explaining why I was finding your writings confusing. Your early posts condemned dualism and seemed to me to indicate that you thought the spirit would not survive outside the body. Please understand, that in the context in which you wrote, somebody in this thread had strongly been condemning the idea that Paul taught spirit-survival by calling that the belief of "Hellenized dualistic freaks". It is in this context that you came condemning dualism, and that sure seemed to me that you were condemning spirit survival. At any rate, I posted a number of quotes from your early writings that seemed to indicate this was your belief. I notice that you did not respond to that at all. Instead you emphasize that you accept spirit survival (now). Well yes, understood, but you do not even address all your early posts that seem to indicate you did not believe spirit survival. If you changed your mind or those quotes have a different meaning, please let me know.

Both the Greeks and the Hebrews, including early Christians, had a concept of duality. The Hellenized version was rejected by Christians since it runs contrary to the Pauline doctrine of the bodily resurrection of Christ and the translation of believers at the Parousia.

Until we can reconstruct with some confidence the emergence of Gnosticism, it is highly speculative to speak of the influence of Gnostic ideas on the emerging Christian faith. There is, however, a body of Greek literature that contains a view of man and the world very close to that of developed Gnosticism, namely, those Greek philosophical and religious writings that reflect the influence of Platonic dualism. These are writings that are well known and datable; and it is profitable to compare their view of man and the world with the biblical view in both the Old and New Testaments...The basic problem is that of dualism. However, dualism means different things in the Greek view and in the biblical view.(The Greek Versus the Hebrew View of Man. Present Truth)
The New Testament is clear that Christ arose in the same body that died and was buried:

And that he was buried, and that he 'rose again' (G1453 ἐγείρω egeirō) the third day according to the scriptures (1 Cor. 15:4)​

Rose again (G1453 ἐγείρω egeirō), is frequently used in the NT in the sense of "raising”…of Christ's "raising" the dead, Mat 11:5; Mar 5:41; Luke 7:14; John 12:1, 9, 17;…of the resurrection of believers, Mat 27:52; John 5:21; 1Cr 15:15, 16, 29, 32, 35, 42-44, 52; 2Cr 1:9; 4:14; of unbelievers, Mat 12:42 Mat 12:41, (Vines New Testament Dictionary)
The spirit of believers at death is separated from their earthly frame and is 'absent from the body, present with the Lord' (2 Cor. 5:8). At the resurrection, the dead in Christ arise, this is diametrically opposed to Platonic dualism.
 
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mark kennedy

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Are there credible witnesses to the resurrection?

Yes.

Here we are
That's actually an important point, not just the living witness of Christians in this day and age but the first century Christians. There are at least 7 letters of Paul that are beyond dispute with regards to authorship and date. These include Galatians, Romans I Thessalonians and 1 Corinthians. The New Testament church spanned the 1 century world from Jerusalem to Greece and Rome who's witness was founded on the testimony of the Apostles regarding the death, burial and resurrection of Christ:

For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures, and that He was seen by Cephas, then by the twelve. After that He was seen by over five hundred brethren at once, of whom the greater part remain to the present, but some have fallen asleep. After that He was seen by James, then by all the apostles. Then last of all He was seen by me also, as by one born out of due time. (1 Cor. 15:3-8)
The witness of resurrection of Christ and the resurrection of believers at the return of Christ is the foundation of the gospel. Always has been.

Grace and peace,
Mark
 
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doubtingmerle

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Are there credible witnesses to the resurrection?

Yes.

Here we are
You are a witness to this? Wow, nice to meet you.

I never thought I would meet somebody old enough to remember those events. ;)
 
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mark kennedy

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In another thread it was claimed that there are multiple credible witnesses to the resurrection. I disagree. Basically we have the author of Mark, and he wrote many years after the supposed event. We don't even know who he was, and don't know what his intention was. Matthew, Luke and John come even later. They closely follow Mark's story, indeed they often just copy it, but diverge sharply on the resurrection. Paul writes earlier, but he appears to be talking about a spiritual resurrection. So no, I don't see any credible witnesses to the resurrection. If you think otherwise, who do you think was a credible witness to it?
Two issues here, the historicity, authorship and dates of the respective Gospel accounts and this expression, 'spiritual resurrection'.

Since the times of the early church fathers, the apostle Matthew has always been accredited with the authorship of the first gospel (canonically). Even the title "According to Matthew" (KATA MAQQAION) is found in the earliest manuscripts, and was the most highly regarded and quoted of the gospels by the church fathers...Not until the eighteenth century did the question of authorship become an issue...Various estimates have placed the date of Matthew's composition anywhere from AD 50 - to AD 100. (The Gospel of Matthew BLB)
The supposition that the Apostle Matthew didn't write this book is a modern phenomenon. It has never been proven that Matthew copied anything from John Mark. The traditional authorship of the other Gospels and Acts stand up will to Modernist rationalizations especially given the mounting evidence of the early date of their composition, especially Matthew and Mark. We can get into that but there is something more important that needs to be addressed first.

More importantly the idea that Paul was teaching a 'spiritual resurrection' has to be qualified because clearly Paul is teaching a bodily resurrection of Christ. Not just that Christ was raised but that it fulfilled predictive prophecy concerning Christ and this witness is uniform across all Christian Scripture and throughout Christian history:

Christ died for our sins (Matt 27:50; Mark 15:37; Luke 24:36; John 19:30)
He was buried (Matt 27:60; Mark 15:46; Luke 23:53; John 19:40)
He was raised on the third day (Matt 28:6; Mark 16:6; Luke 24:3; John 20:2)
He appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve (Matt 28:16-17; Mark 16:7; Luke 24:36; John 20:19)​

What your saying sounds like Docetism, not Biblical Christianity:

Docetism was unequivocally rejected at the First Council of Nicaea in 325 and is regarded as heretical by the Catholic Church, Orthodox Church, and Coptic Church…Docetism is broadly defined as any teaching that claims that Jesus' body was either absent or illusory.​

They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they confess not the Eucharist to be the flesh of our Saviour Jesus Christ, which suffered for our sins, and which the Father, of His goodness, raised up again. They who deny the gift of God are perishing in their disputes. (Ignatius of Antioch letter to the Smyrnaeans, 7:1, 110 AD) (Docetism, Wikipedia)​

This is found no where in the New Testament and completely rejected in all Christian traditions. Docetism of this nature is found in the Koran and strictly opposed to a bodily resurrection:

And because of their saying: We slew the Messiah, Jesus son of Mary, Allah's messenger — they slew him not nor crucified him, but it appeared so unto them; and lo! those who disagree concerning it are in doubt thereof; they have no knowledge thereof save pursuit of a conjecture; they slew him not for certain. But Allah took him up unto Himself. Allah was ever Mighty, Wise. (Qur'an, Sura 4:157–158)
Liberal Theology introduced this idea as back in the eighteenth century:

"This skeptical way of thinking reached its culmination in the argument that Jesus as a human being never existed at all and is a myth. In ancient times, this extreme view was named the heresy of docetism (seeming) because it maintained that Jesus never came into the world "in the flesh", but only seemed to; (I John 4:2) and it was given some encouragement by Paul's lack of interest in his fleshly existence. Subsequently, from the eighteenth century onwards, there have been attempts to insist that Jesus did not even "seem" to exist, and that all tales of his appearance upon the earth were pure fiction. In particular, his story was compared to the pagan mythologies inventing fictitious dying and rising gods." (Grant, Michael. Jesus. 2004) (Docetism, Wikipedia)
In short, define what you mean by, 'spiritual resurrection', because Paul and Christians down through the ages have always taught the bodily resurrection of Christ in no uncertain terms. Are you saying, 'the resurrection story told in the Gospels, of a Jesus risen in the flesh, does not represent what the original disciples believed' (Evidence Against Resurrection of the Flesh, Richard Carrier). If your going to argue for a 'spiritual resurrection' in the opening post you should tell us what you mean by that phrase.

Have a nice day :)
Mark
 
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mark kennedy

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See my previous post above. I never said you were wrong about this. Just that there are other possibilities.

He is trying to get you to agree with the celestial body thesis, that holds that there is no body made of flesh at all. There sure is another possibility, its called the resurrection. Notice he never uses that word.

Fraid so, if top ancient scholars at the time were already making harmonizations in the mid second century, then that plainly implies that the gospels were well known long before that.

Yea considering you could reconstruct the gospels from the writting of the church fathers. There are manuscript fragments going back to the first century and until the nineteenth century the authership of the Gospels and Acts was rarely question and never disputed. I'll take the witness of the early church fathers and nineteen hundred years of Christian scholarship over the naturalistic assumptions of modernists any day

You may consider it bogus, but you have not proven that it is bogus and in fact you have not provided any biblical evidence that it is bogus, other than a few verses taken out of context.

The problem is that he cannot argue that Paul didnt write the letter of Galations, 1 Corinthians, 1 Thessalonians, Romans and a couple of others. If Paul is teaching the bodily resurrection his argument comes completely unwraveled. Its really all he has, its called the celestial aka spiritual body thesis and its diametrically opposed to the bodily resurrection. The only people teaching this were doesitists and gnostics. Paul taught the bodily resurrection.
 
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doubtingmerle

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Thank you, thank you very much.

It is a great pleasure to speak to this raucous crowd. I haven't seen this much noise lately, except when the Republican Senators came back to their home districts. At least I have something to offer [wild applause from my loyal fans].

We are here to discuss the evidence for the resurrection of Jesus, or rather, the lack thereof. We have concentrated on Paul recently, and for good reason. He is the first written witness to say anything substantial on the resurrection, but he is surprisingly short on details. He makes no specific mention that the grave was found empty, and tells no details of any account of a person with the risen Jesus. His list in I Corinthians 15 includes himself, but arguably he only saw a "Heavenly Vision" (as Acts calls it). Could the others have seen nothing more than a vision? Or was Paul merely repeating rumors? We don't know.

Paul taught a resurrection. What did he mean? It could be:
a) a mythical resurrection of a mythical Jesus, who was never even lived on earth, not even as a Docetic Jesus.
b) a spiritual resurrection, in which Paul's spirit lived on in a spiritual body.
c) a bodily resurrection.
Now I think a) is probably the correct answer. I argue that in detail starting at post 204 in another thread -- Carrier: On the Historicity of Jesus, a community discussion . I won't address that here.

To me, the next most likely answer is b), but first, let me say a few words about c). It could be that Paul taught a bodily resurrection and was mistaken. Jesus could have survived crucifixion, and only have been thought to have risen again. The body could have been misplaced or stolen away by a rogue disciple such as Joseph of Arimathea. Or the rumor could have started years later while the body was who knows where. Or Jesus could have risen. But since actually resurrections are rare, I doubt that is the answer. So c) is possible.

This brings us back to b), which I think is the most likely if not a). The reason is simple. Paul seems to say that this is what he is expecting, that his body will die and decay, and the real self will live on. He tells us specifically that this is what happens in 2 Corinthians 5:1-5. The earthly "house" decays and we have a new body prepared for us in heaven. Paul says specifically that the body that is planted is not the same body that comes up:

But some man will say, How are the dead raised up? and with what body do they come?
Thou fool, that which thou sowest is not quickened, except it die:
And that which thou sowest, thou sowest not that body that shall be, but bare grain, it may chance of wheat, or of some other grain:
But God giveth it a body as it hath pleased him, and to every seed his own body. I Cor 15:35-38​

So Paul was expecting a new body. Paul goes on to say the dead are sown a natural body, and raised a spiritual body. v44. So if this is what Paul expected, and Paul compares his resurrection to Jesus, could not Paul have been thinking the same for Jesus?

From what I can tell, many here believe that the spirit lives on after death. On this thread there is a lot of objection to the thought that Paul would get a spiritual body in heaven, although the idea is quite popular in pop culture. At funerals everybody is talking about the dead walking and talking and seeing Jesus and smiling and doing all kinds of things that can be best explained as saying they believe the dead have some sort of spiritual body, just as Paul said. Some believe that this spiritual body is not made until much later, at the Parousia, when the spiritual body is made. Others have claimed that the new body that is made is a natural body, not a spiritual body, in spite of Paul's disagreement. But the issue is not the length of time one waits for the new body, or what that new body is like. The issue is that the spirit is thought to come out of the body and live on. It is thought to eventually be in some sort of new body to spend eternity. So most Christians believe.

Many will stop me and say the spirit will not be returning to a new body, but to the same body. But how can that possible be? For Paul, the body is gone. For Paul, there is no body to return to. If Paul's only hope of survival is to live on in the same body, then Paul is gone, without hope. But some will say that, although his first body is gone, God will give him an exact replica body. OK, that is the same thing as I say. Paul thought he would live on in his spirit until he gets a new body to spend eternity. Both are talking of a new body.

Now I personally don't believe in spirit survival after death. So when the body is gone, for me, that is it. There is no possibility of that person living again. Conceivably a God could save some DNA and make a duplicate of you, but that would be a clone, not you. So if any teach that there is no spirit that can live on beyond the body after death I see no possibility of heaven.

So anyway, if Paul, and most all Christians believe that the spirit of a person can survive on in a new body (even if they claim that new body is an exact replica and is only made at the Parousia) then could it be that Paul thought the same of Jesus, that his spirit survived to live on in another body?

Regardless if Paul thought Jesus rose to a second body or if the first body arose, I see precious little in Paul that actually confirms that a resurrection occurred.

Any questions?

Maybe, but Christ was a slightly different case. His present body had not decayed and in order to demonstrate the power of God over death, His body was transformed in the grave and then raised. See above about continuity between the two.
Sure, it is possible that Paul thought Christians arose in a second body, and Jesus arose in his first body, but I see no need for that hypothesis. Besides, the resurrected Jesus described by Paul seems more like an angel or a spirit than a human body.
God has the power to reconstitute our earthly bodies and then transform it so that there is continuity between the two.
If God exists he could have that power. But the duplicate body would still be a duplicate body. And if God is making a duplicate body for the dead, then what is to stop him from going ahead and making a new body for the man whose corpse is 3 days old?

I was not referring to the outer husk. I was referring to the kernel that becomes the plant. Even Paul knew that fact. That DNA is the same as the adult plant See: How To Genetically Modify a Seed, Step By Step
Understood. And I think Paul thought the spirit, the inner man, the kernel was the real person. But the outer shell, the body, could be cast off.

I repeatedly told you that your thinking was too black and white, that there were more options then the blue and red one, that the idea of 'spirit' you hold is anachronistic to the period.
Sure, I have layed out many options. I am not dogmatic on any of them. I just don't think that Paul expected his body to rise. If he did, then he is sadly mistaken, for his body cannot rise. Only a duplicate can at this point.
So do I hold to Spirit survival? Yes and No,you'd have to define 'spirit' correctly.
OK, I will take "Yes and No" as your answer. That may help explain why I have trouble understanding you.
To Second Temple Judaism there is no such thing as a dualist Spirit/Body as I repeatedly explained. This is anachronistic to Semitic thought which saw things more in a holistic manner, as my examples of the Prophets earlier indicated. A being is a composite of Ruach, Nephesh and perhaps his matter as well?, so that Pharisees saw our Ruach reunited with the Nephesh in Sheol to recreate us. Without both elements, we don't as such really exist, as Sadducees taught who denied the Resurrection.
"Perhaps his matter"? What does that mean? Does that mean that perhaps, if the Ruach and matterless Nephesh unite, the person lives on in some sort of new spiritual state while the matter is gone? That is pretty much my view that Paul thought the spirit could live on without the body.

So could Paul have thought Jesus left the matter behind, and his Ruach and matterless Nephesh united so he could live on?

Or if the Nephesh includes the matter, what happened to Paul when his matter was gone?

Does it matter if Paul has no matter any more?

Paul thus develops this doctrine by our being in Christ, thus the Ruach lives with Christ in His glorified state - hence for any of this to make sense according to Second Temple Jewish thought a bodily Resurrected Christ is not only needed but a necessity. There is no concept of separated essences as such.
Wait, you said without the Nephesh the Rauch does not really exist. How can the Rauch live with Christ if it does not really exist?

Are there credible witnesses to the resurrection?

Yes.

Here we are

Because Jesus lives in your heart? But that would be claiming a Jesus that is a spiritual being, which many here vehemently deny. They say Jesus in your heart is just a metaphor. If it is just a metaphor, how can that be proof of anything?

OK, we are out of time. Thanks for listening. Good night. [standing ovation]
 
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Perhaps his matter"? What does that mean? Does that mean that perhaps, if the Ruach and matterless Nephesh unite, the person lives on in some sort of new spiritual state while the matter is gone? That is pretty much my view that Paul thought the spirit could live on without the body.

So could Paul have thought Jesus left the matter behind, and his Ruach and matterless Nephesh united so he could live on?

Or if the Nephesh includes the matter, what happened to Paul when his matter was gone?

Does it matter if Paul has no matter any more?
Nephesh was not thought of as matterless. I have never made that distinction. It is the husk of the body, an animating principle within us, hence the Bible speaks of Living and Dead Nephesh. It descends to Sheol, but it is not conceived as 'spiritual' in the modern sense. This is anachronistic. None of the ancients had an idea of such 'matterless' beings. Greek Shades and gods, Jinn and demons etc. were all conceived to have a physical existence if less palpable than our own. Look at Orpheus and Eurydice, the Iliad, the Aeniad, the Koran and you will see this. Even Greek philosophy and esoteric first century religions had some form of substance for the soul, usually a variation of fire or ether. But of course I am repeating myself again.

Wait, you said without the Nephesh the Rauch does not really exist. How can the Rauch live with Christ if it does not really exist?
Your twisting my words again. The Ruach is the 'breath of Life' of a body, but if there is no body how can there be a breath to vitalise it? A being is not existent without both, they are parts of a whole. It is because Christ has a Nephesh, a resurrected and glorified body which facilitates the continued existence of the 'dead-in-Christ' who are one with Him. There Ruach has an existence as we are of Him. This is why Paul is speaking by necessity of a physical resurrection, for there is no other first century conceptualisation that allows his theology.
Sure, I have layed out many options. I am not dogmatic on any of them. I just don't think that Paul expected his body to rise. If he did, then he is sadly mistaken, for his body cannot rise. Only a duplicate can at this point
It seems to me as if you are stuck on modern definitions. "If the body decayed, there is no body" - but people did not think like this in the old days. People thought insects spontaneously arose from corruption and decay. They thought adopted children developed physical characteristics of their new parents.
In a similar vein, they conceived that when your body decayed, somethimg remained. You will say this is 'spiritual', but a look at mythology shows you that it clearly isn't. Think of Persephone and her pomegranite pips. Physical entrances to the underworld are common; psychopomps like Fravathi or Valkyries carry something of substance which becomes more Real in their realms, in like vein we become less Real in theirs.
Ideas like 'matter' and 'spirit' as opposing concepts simply does not exist and the idea of a body being unrecoverable would not be understood; when to their mind the 'core' remained in Sheol, but even if there hadn't been it wouldn't be a problem. As Aristotle wrote on Jason's ship - it gets new planks until none of the original ship remains, but it is still Jason's ship; however here we have a centrality around which it could anyway be built.

I fail to see the relevance of the body having to consist of the same exact matter anyway. Our matter changes the whole time as we grow new cells and old ones die, or intracellular enzymes replace defunct proteins or acids, so very little of ourselves is constantly there at all from birth to death. The ancients had the same concept, that food became the body and that it needed to be replenished periodically as it loses substances. We actually see references to the idea of Jason's ship in this regard amongst them as well. So quite frankly I don't understand why you think it a problem if someone gets a duplicate body per se?
 
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mark kennedy

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I would submit that what I am about to review and respond to is a performance representing, 'certain idle dogmas', 'false notions', specifically regarding the Pauline doctrine of the resurrection. Were it true that Paul taught a celestial death, burial and resurrection of a fictional character his writings and ministry of the first century would have been regarded as pagan mythology, docetism and Gnosticism that was categorically rejected by ancient Judaism and all Christian theism from the last 2,000 years and beyond:

Lastly, there are idols which have crept into men’s minds from the various dogmas of peculiar systems of philosophy, and also from the perverted rules of demonstration, and these we denominate idols of the theater…For we regard all the systems of philosophy hitherto received or imagined, as so many plays brought out and performed, creating fictitious and theatrical worlds. (Novum Organum, Sir Francis Bacon)
Sometimes doubtingmerle performs for some mysterious 'lurkers', that he imagines are part of his larger audience. As far as I can tell it's only me and a couple of Christian apologists who are very much unpersuaded by his arguments. He is alone on a stage, myself, Ed and Quid are watching the performance that none of us will applaud or accept. He opens with:

Thank you, thank you very much.

It is a great pleasure to speak to this raucous crowd. I haven't seen this much noise lately, except when the Republican Senators came back to their home districts. At least I have something to offer [wild applause from my loyal fans].

Actually it's just us, waiting as the performance unfolds.

We are here to discuss the evidence for the resurrection of Jesus, or rather, the lack thereof. We have concentrated on Paul recently, and for good reason. He is the first written witness to say anything substantial on the resurrection, but he is surprisingly short on details. He makes no specific mention that the grave was found empty, and tells no details of any account of a person with the risen Jesus. His list in I Corinthians 15 includes himself, but arguably he only saw a "Heavenly Vision" (as Acts calls it). Could the others have seen nothing more than a vision? Or was Paul merely repeating rumors? We don't know.

Paul taught a resurrection. What did he mean? It could be:
a) a mythical resurrection of a mythical Jesus, who was never even lived on earth, not even as a Docetic Jesus.
b) a spiritual resurrection, in which Paul's spirit lived on in a spiritual body.
c) a bodily resurrection.​
He portrays two characters, one the mythical Jesus that had neither flesh nor blood, like the ones the genealogies found in Luke and Matthew. He was neither Hebrew, nor Judean nor a descendant from the house of David. The other a mystery religion god, formed from an illusory vision with no bearing on the contemporary history no historian questions Paul belonged to. Somehow he managed to convince not only 12 disciples, known as Apostles, but up to five hundred purported eye witnesses of the existence of this imaginary figure but churches were founded across Galatia and Greece who's numbers soared in the first century. The evidence of this living witness, I repeat, no serious historian questions, he will attempt to make disappear.
Now I think a) is probably the correct answer. I argue that in detail starting at post 204 in another thread -- Carrier: On the Historicity of Jesus, a community discussion . I won't address that here.

Which of course is the Carrier thesis that Paul was a devotee of a celestial Jesus and the founder of a pagan mystery religion. With a clumsy slight of hand he will attempt to neutralize the Apostolic witness, the blessed hope, the translation of believers and the bodily resurrection. I for one am as fascinated with this performance and unconvinced that 2,000 years of Christian scholarship and the collective consensus of virtually all secular historians is mistaken. This trick, that is the whole performance is leading up to and based on, will attempt to make all of the evidence for the bodily resurrection of the Son of God disappear before our eyes. This I've got to see.

To me, the next most likely answer is b), but first, let me say a few words about c). It could be that Paul taught a bodily resurrection and was mistaken. Jesus could have survived crucifixion, and only have been thought to have risen again. The body could have been misplaced or stolen away by a rogue disciple such as Joseph of Arimathea. Or the rumor could have started years later while the body was who knows where. Or Jesus could have risen. But since actually resurrections are rare, I doubt that is the answer. So c) is possible.

It's just a rumor, Paul managed to convince the 12 Apostles and up to 500 eye witnesses that someone who never existed was raised from the dead. We must assume tremendous powers of persuasion here, on an epic scale. It staggers the imagination that such story would convince so many devote Jews of a myth, and grow to include such a vast array of Gentile converts with Paul's rendition of a mere rumor. We all sit, consumed with incredulity and disdain wondering where such a misguided notion could have arisen. We are directed to search the pages of another thread. Unimpressed and utterly unconvinced we continue to wait patiently for the second act.

For his second trick, he will attempt to make the Pauline doctrine of the bodily resurrection, the translation of the saints at the Parousia to transform itself into a pagan myth. Can he do it?

This brings us back to b), which I think is the most likely if not a). The reason is simple. Paul seems to say that this is what he is expecting, that his body will die and decay, and the real self will live on. He tells us specifically that this is what happens in 2 Corinthians 5:1-5. The earthly "house" decays and we have a new body prepared for us in heaven. Paul says specifically that the body that is planted is not the same body that comes up:

But some man will say, How are the dead raised up? and with what body do they come?
Thou fool, that which thou sowest is not quickened, except it die:
And that which thou sowest, thou sowest not that body that shall be, but bare grain, it may chance of wheat, or of some other grain:
But God giveth it a body as it hath pleased him, and to every seed his own body. I Cor 15:35-38​
The question immediately comes to mind, is Paul teaching a physical body at the resurrection or a celestial one. I wonder what would Paul say to this:

Paul, an apostle (not from men nor through man, but through Jesus Christ and God the Father who raised Him from the dead) (Gal. 1:1)​

How very strange indeed that Paul would be starting a letter, no one seriously doubts he wrote, in the time frame of the first century, would be speaking of anything other then a physical resurrection. The long awaited, 'Son of David', 'Lion of the Tribe of Judea', promised 'Messiah', would be fictional after all. Of course, because people believed anything a middle age Jewish zealot says in the first century, they were just gullible like that. This is coming from a Pharisee who believed in the resurrection of the dead and certainly that the Messiah must be a physical descendant of Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Judah from the root of Jesse and the House of David. He lays claim to not only Jesus having all these qualifications but that the 12 Apostles bore witness of the same historical fulfillment of Messianic prophecy.

For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures, and that He was seen by Cephas, then by the twelve. After that He was seen by over five hundred brethren at once, of whom the greater part remain to the present, but some have fallen asleep. (1 Cor. 15:3-6)
He convinces a large number of Jews across Israel, Galatia and Asian Minor, Macedonia, Greece and Rome that someone who never existed was the promised Messiah, from the Tribe of Judea and the House of David and we are to believe that first century Jews would not object to this pagan mythology? Never mind that churches have already been started, by devote Jewish Christians in northern Africa and Rome 14 years before Paul starts talking about this mythic character.

But the issue is not the length of time one waits for the new body, or what that new body is like. The issue is that the spirit is thought to come out of the body and live on. It is thought to eventually be in some sort of new body to spend eternity. So most Christians believe.

Correction, all Christians believe, including Paul that Christ was raised bodily and that the dead in Christ will rise at the Parousia. But we are supposed to believe there is nothing up his sleeve.

Many will stop me and say the spirit will not be returning to a new body, but to the same body. But how can that possible be? For Paul, the body is gone. For Paul, there is no body to return to. If Paul's only hope of survival is to live on in the same body, then Paul is gone, without hope. But some will say that, although his first body is gone, God will give him an exact replica body. OK, that is the same thing as I say. Paul thought he would live on in his spirit until he gets a new body to spend eternity. Both are talking of a new body.

What's this I wonder, could he really have some vague inclining of a bodily resurrection because that's what Paul really taught. We will have to wait and see.

Now I personally don't believe in spirit survival after death. So when the body is gone, for me, that is it. There is no possibility of that person living again. Conceivably a God could save some DNA and make a duplicate of you, but that would be a clone, not you. So if any teach that there is no spirit that can live on beyond the body after death I see no possibility of heaven.

Oh, now I see, this isn't about Paul at all. It's not about whether or not Paul believed in the immortality of the soul or the bodily resurrection of Christ or the translations of believers. What he is talking about is his own naturalistic assumptions. Well that makes sense.

Regardless if Paul thought Jesus rose to a second body or if the first body arose, I see precious little in Paul that actually confirms that a resurrection occurred.

Except, of course, the living witness of the first century church, the twelve Apostles and the power of the Holy Spirit including signs, wonders and mighty deeds being the marks of Apostleship:

I persevered in demonstrating among you the marks of a true apostle, including signs, wonders and miracles. (2 Cor. 12:12)

by the power of signs and wonders, and by the power of the Spirit of God. So from Jerusalem all the way around to Illyricum, I have fully proclaimed the gospel of Christ. (Romans 15:19)​

He is here basing his credibility as an Apostle, with the other 12 Apostles still alive and able to confront him over exaggeration or deceit, on miracles confirming his office as Apostle from things they personally saw happen. It's not like the Essenes built a considerable community around the promise of Messianic prophecy, that diabolical deception wouldn't be crafted until sometime in the second century, after Israel and the Temple were destroyed. They even crafted a scene describing an 'abomination that causes desolation', in a nation and a Temple that no longer existed. There's nothing absurd or conflicted about that at all.

Any questions?

Have you read Paul, the early church fathers who quote Paul and the other Apostles? Are you kidding me?

OK, we are out of time. Thanks for listening. Good night. [standing ovation]

There is no crowd, the only audience are a few Christian apologists who neither applaud your theatrics nor stand in celebration. It's only you on that empty stage, reciting, 'dogmas of peculiar systems of philosophy', 'certain idle dogmas', 'false notions', 'creating fictitious and theatrical worlds', in the theater of the secular humanist mind. It was a roar of passion and fury, a gross distortion of the Pauline doctrine of the resurrection with neither practical evidence nor relevant source material. It's just you on a stage, trying to pull off a clumsy slight of hand, and not a very convincing one at that.

Quite a performance, you just couldn't pull off the prestige, except to an imaginary crowd. In the end, it's only you. No proof, no prestige and certainly, no applause.

Have a nice day :)
Mark
 
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mark kennedy

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I repeatedly told you that your thinking was too black and white, that there were more options then the blue and red one, that the idea of 'spirit' you hold is anachronistic to the period.

I wouldn't go that far, the period was marked by a variety of mystery religions, having elaborate initiation rites and these secret myths. While doing some of the background reading for the Carrier thesis I was reading about the Mithra mystery religion, there were seven levels each representing each of the seven known planets at the time. They would memorize answers to a series of questions, then there would be a celebratory fellowship meal. They met in caves or rooms without doors because Mithra killed the bull in a cave, the basic myth at the core of their belief system. It was a warriors religion, most Roman soldiers were initiates.

The point being, Mithra is obviously a celestial deity and these religious deities permeated the culture, fertility cults were very popular. To somehow conclude that Paul was teaching some celestial deity has absolutely no basis in the pages of Scripture. Indeed these mystery religions did abound in the first century greco roman world, there is no real question about that. How on earth someone mistakes Paul for someone who would incorporate Judaeo Christian theism betrays a complete lack of insight into how Hebrew and Christian theism works. Carrier is a PHD and celebrated scholar that can't make the most basic insight into religious culture and practice and this is the guy who is going to show us how to do an exposition of the writings of the Apostle Paul. I don't think so.

So do I hold to Spirit survival? Yes and No, you'd have to define 'spirit' correctly. The person that characterised your thinking as of "hellenistic dualist freaks" is partially correct, if emotive. I explained that there was pervasive Greek influence in HELLENistic times, did you miss that? Those articles explain how Jewish thought evolved and where it was influenced by Greek ideas, but they are influenced BY not derived FROM as I said before. You are really twisting my words here and ignoring what I wrote.

There is no such thing as 'spirit survival', what we are talking about is the immortality of the soul. Matthew Henry once said, and I'm quoting this from memory so bear with me. 'Man is a beam of light and a clod of clay, at death these two are separated, at the judgment seat of Christ they are rejoined for the power beyond the grave'. How on earth is someone supposed to understand Hebrew and Christian literature if they have no poetry in their soul?

Then there is this 'Hellenistic' thing so strongly influenced by the Platonic thinking of the duality of body and spirit. Hellenism by the way is a literate form of the word Greece which means, 'Helen', the queen that was so famously portrayed in the Odyssey and the Iliad. You may of seen the movie with Brad Pitt, the battle of Troy and the Trojan Horse are familiar to us in a general way. For decades the historian would tell you there was no evidence for an historical Troy, then they found it. Now they are basically saying we think there is an historical narrative here but we still don't think Ulysses encountered a cyclops during the voyage to Troy from Greece. Greeks loved drama, they invented wonderful myths I enjoyed reading in grade school, still do. Bottom line I'm not in a personal relationship with Mithra or Zeus and I don't think anyone in these mystery religions or fertility cults were either. I came to know Christ in a personal way, I can't prove that to a skeptic. But if that skeptic can't make the basic insight into what Paul is teaching regarding the resurrection and the Parousia I have serious questions if they understand the first thing about Paul or the Gospel at all. Whether they believe it or not is entirely beside the point.

To Second Temple Judaism there is no such thing as a dualist Spirit/Body as I repeatedly explained. This is anachronistic to Semitic thought which saw things more in a holistic manner, as my examples of the Prophets earlier indicated. A being is a composite of Ruach, Nephesh and perhaps his matter as well?, so that Pharisees saw our Ruach reunited with the Nephesh in Sheol to recreate us. Without both elements, we don't as such really exist, as Sadducees taught who denied the Resurrection.
Josephus in no way supports the 'two body view', for there are no two bodies - it is a single organism consisting of parts which have little reality separate of one another. His writing on Pharisee beliefs are clear on this point and he differentiates it from Greek beliefs. It is silly Carrier-esque sophistry to try and sneak such ideas into Josephus. It in no way supports a 'planted body and a risen body' as you characterise it, as both are not really equivalent ideas to the modern concept of 'body'. A lot is lost in translation.
Paul thus develops this doctrine by our being in Christ, thus the Ruach lives with Christ in His glorified state - hence for any of this to make sense according to Second Temple Jewish thought a bodily Resurrected Christ is not only needed but a necessity.

There is no concept of separated essences as such.

Ok, I get what you are saying now, yes, that's exactly right. The ancient and first century Hebrews saw no separation between the soul and the spirit and the body, the concept was entirely holistic. What's more the idea that a Pharisee or any devote Jew from the period would somehow get involved in some celestial mystery religion, let alone start one is an absurd misunderstanding of the cultural context, devoid of genuine insight, easily dismissed.

You are really stuck on ideas of Body and Spirit which are really inapplicable even after multiple attempts to explain it to you. Please stop saying 'you said this now you say that' when I have been consistently explaining the same view which just does not correspond to your two artificial characterisations that for some reason you assume to be the only possible views.
Please read up on Second Temple Judaism as your whole conceptualisation of these questions is hopelessly anachronistic and as Mark Kennedy so aptly explained, non-equivalent. Why can others so easily grasp what I am saying while you would have me endlessly re-explain? This is why I think you are being duplicitous.

I am tired of extending an olive branch for a sincere discussion on this question and having you attempt to set it alight.

I never got a chance to mention, I enjoyed the two articles you attached to that earlier post. What is lacking in this discussion is basic insight into how the literary features of the Pauline doctrine and Scriptures are actually constructed because there is no rational basis for a celestial Jesus, the proposition is pedantic and lacks any genuine insight into the cultural context of Christian and pagan systems. I keep hoping we will somehow manage to explore the evidence for the resurrection instead of banging heads over the naturalistic assumptions that are the heart of this issue. What is important here is not what I believe, or what Carrier believes. What we are talking about is what Paul believed and clearly taught as being of first importance for the Gospel as history and doctrine.

We are so far off that focus I wonder if we could find our way back with a road map and a flash light, but we'll see.

Grace and peace,
Mark
 
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ed: No, see above. I am not sure what parts you are referring to as wrong, but not everything in Mark 13 is about the Fall of Jerusalem, parts of it are about the Second Coming.

dm: Sorry. Mark 3:24-31 says "you" will see the Son of Man come, and since he was speaking to the disciples, "you" means the disciples. He emphasizes it by saying this generation will not pass away until all these things come to pass.

You tell me: Did that generation pass away before all those things came to pass? Did the "you" that Jesus was talking to see these things as promised? Then it seems to me that Mark missed the prophecy badly, and was not a good prophet.

Actually I made a mistake here, I was thinking Matthew when I wrote Mark. All of Mark 13 is about the Fall of Jerusalem and its aftermath. Matthew mentions Jesus talking about both in Chapt. 24. So no, that generation was still alive just as Christ prophesied.

dm: And if Mark was not a good prophet, then he would not have known about the fall of Jerusalem in 60 AD.

And since he didn't mention the fall as having occurred as Jesus predicted above in order to confirm His prophecy, that means he did not know that it had occurred thereby providing strong evidence that it was written before 70 AD.

ed: Two of them are the reference to "The Twelve" and Cephas.

dm: I must have asked you this ten times. You ignore it every time: Paul uses the word Cephas many times. If using the word Cephas makes something a creed, are they all creeds?

Cephas was Peters pre-Christian greek name. This means that it dates back to the time he first met Jesus. The linguistic structure also points to it being a creed/hymn.

dm: You refuse to answer. And you will refuse again, won't you?
I did answer, see above.

ed: For the rest you will have to read the scholars I mentioned in my earlier post. Who are all well respected and on both sides of the aisle.

dm: Do any of them say the creed said many of the 500 have already died?
Do any of them say the creed said "last of all he appeared to me," meaning Paul?
How many of them include James in the creed?
How many are saying only that it may be a creed, not that it definitely is?

We have been over this dozens of times and you refuse to address these issues.
I said that the first question may have been an Pauline insert. They all include James in the creed. He was a top leader in the church at the time, so plainly he would be included. They are saying that there is evidence it is a creed. They are not necessarily saying with absolute certainty, but all of the evidence points that way.

ed: That is what it says and many well respected scholars agree that it is an ancient Christian Creed/Hymn written less than 5 years after the event. Read the scholars I referenced in my earlier post.

dm: I think most say it may be a creed, not that they know it is.

See above.

dm: And you have never shown where "the creed" specifically mentions that anybody saw the grave was empty, or that any of them had an experience more than the "heavenly vision" Paul saw.

How did they know that he rose on the third day if they didn't know it was empty at that time? To jews a heavenly vision is not a resurrection as I demonstrated earlier.


ed: See my post about the harmonizations that were written early in the 2nd century, that would be unlikely if they had not been widely known about in the first. Also, in this particular statement I was not referring to the gospels, I was referring to the ancient creed/hymn which predates the gospels by 20 years.

dm: You showed me a harmonization from 170 AD. That in no way refutes my claim that the gospels were not widely quoted before 140 AD. You were told this before. You ignore it, and repeat the same claim that has already been refuted.
I provided multiple harmonizations from before 170 AD. You were claiming that the gospels were not widely known about prior to 170, this plainly disproves that claim. They would not have bothered with harmonizations of the gospels if they were not widely known about by early Christians.
 
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Fraid so.

Again, how do they know that Polycarp used Luke? Q, if it existed, would have been almost identical in the portions Polycarp mentions. How do you know Polycarp did not use Q? How do you know he did not use verbal sources or one of the many other gospels that Luke refers to in Luke 1?

Because there is strong evidence that the gospel of Luke existed and exists, while there is very little if any evidence Q existed.

dm: Even if Polycarp, who is thought to have written between 110 and 140 AD used Luke, that hardly refutes my assertion that the gospels are rarely mentioned before 140 AD.

I have already demonstrated that the gospels were well known because of the multiple gospel harmonizations that were created around 150 AD. They would not have existed that early if the gospels were ignored in the first and second centuries.

dm: The issue is what the text of Luke looked like before 140 AD. (You have gone round and round on this, and I think you have forgotten why we are even discussing Clement.) We do not know what the gospels looked like before 140 AD, or even much about what they looked like until the third century. We do not know what edits were made in that time frame. Telling us that Polycarp, writing around 130 AD, says thing like the following is hardly evidence that we know Luke has not changed since 70 AD.

If all the edits that occurred between the third century and the 21st century have been minor then it is rational to assume that any edits between the first and third century's would be minor.

dm: but remembering the words which the Lord spake, as He taught; Judge
not that ye be not judged. Forgive, and it shall be forgiven to
you. Have mercy that ye may receive mercy. With what measure ye
mete, it shall be measured to you again;
not that ye be not judged. Forgive, and it shall be forgiven to
you. Have mercy that ye may receive mercy. With what measure ye
mete, it shall be measured to you again;
and again Blessed are
the poor and they that are persecuted for righteousness' sake, for
theirs is the kingdom of God
the poor and they that are persecuted for righteousness' sake, for
theirs is the kingdom of God
. [source]
Again, you turn to dubious evidence like Clement as proof that the gospels did not change. The fact that you would reach so low for evidence is astounding. I quoted the applicable portion before and you ignored it. So I will address this to any lurker who may be reading. Interested lurkers: Please show me what part of the quote below proves that one of our four gospels looked very much word for word the same as what they appear today. Clement writes:

1Clem 16:1
For Christ is with them that are lowly of mind, not with them that
exalt themselves over the flock.

1Clem 16:2
The scepter of the majesty of God, even our Lord Jesus Christ, came not in the pomp of arrogance or of pride, though He might have done so, but in lowliness of mind, according as the Holy Spirit spake concerning Him.

1Clem 16:3
For He saith
Lord, who believed our report? and to whom was the arm
of the Lord revealed? We announced Him in His presence. As a child
was He, as a root in a thirsty ground. There is no form in Him,
neither glory. And we beheld Him, and He had no form nor
comeliness, but His form was mean, lacking more than the form of
men. He was a man of stripes and of toil, and knowing how to bear
infirmity: for His face is turned away. He was dishonored and held
of no account.

of the Lord revealed? We announced Him in His presence. As a child
was He, as a root in a thirsty ground. There is no form in Him,
neither glory. And we beheld Him, and He had no form nor
comeliness, but His form was mean, lacking more than the form of
men. He was a man of stripes and of toil, and knowing how to bear
infirmity: for His face is turned away. He was dishonored and held
of no account.


1Clem 16:4

He beareth our sins and suffereth pain for our sakes: and we
accounted Him to be in toil and in stripes and in affliction.


1Clem 16:5

And He was wounded for our sins and hath been afflicted for our
iniquities. The chastisement of our peace is upon Him. With His
bruises we were healed.


1Clem 16:6

We all went astray like sheep, each man went astray in his own
path:


1Clem 16:7

and the Lord delivered Him over for our sins. And He openeth not
His mouth, because He is afflicted. As a sheep He was led to
slaughter; and as a lamb before his shearer is dumb, so openeth He
not His mouth. In His humiliation His judgment was taken away.


1Clem 16:8

His generation who shall declare? For His life is taken away from
the earth.


1Clem 16:9

For the iniquities of my people He is come to death.

1Clem 16:10

And I will give the wicked for His burial, and the rich for His
death; for He wrought no iniquity, neither was guile found in His
mouth. And the Lord desireth to cleanse Him from His stripes.


1Clem 16:11

If ye offer for sin, your soul shall see along lived seed.

1Clem 16:12

And the Lord desireth to take away from the toil of His soul, to
show Him light and to mould Him with understanding, to justify a
Just One that is a good servant unto many. And He shall bear their
sins.


1Clem 16:13

Therefore He shall inherit many, and shall divide the spoils of the
strong; because His soul was delivered unto death, and He was
reckoned unto the transgressors;


1Clem 16:14

and He bare the sins of many, and for their sins was He delivered
up.


1Clem 16:15
And again He Himself saith; But I am a worm and no man, a reproach
of men and an outcast of the people.

of men and an outcast of the people.

1Clem 16:16

All they that beheld me mocked at me; they spake with their lips;
they wagged their heads, saying, He hoped on the Lord; let Him
deliver him, or let Him save him, for He desireth him.


1Clem 16:17
Ye see, dearly beloved, what is the pattern that hath been given unto
us; for, if the Lord was thus lowly of mind, what should we do, who
through Him have been brought under the yoke of His grace? [source]
The portion in blue is a direct quote of Isaiah 53 and Psalms. That in no way says anything about the early content of the four gospels. The portion in bold shows us that Clement is telling us that his source about Christ's sufferings is Isaiah 53, not Matthew. He is very specific. He did not get it from the four gospels. He got it from Isaiah. How anybody can use this as proof that one of the four gospels in 100 AD was identical to the gospels we have today is mind-boggling.

I didn't say it was word for word from the gospels but is idea for idea directly from the gospels. If he had not read the gospels he would have been ignorant of the amazing parallels between Isaiah and the gospels.
 
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Fraid, so. Go back and see all your references to various false gnostic gospels such as Barnabas and Thomas that you even reference above.

dm: Oh, puhleeze. Remember that you brought up the gospel of Barnabas, not me. My only response was to write it off. And now you accuse me of using that as a source? Is there no limit to the depth you will go to try to find dirt on me?

And Thomas? We don't know when it was written, but it is commonly said to have been written 50 AD to 140 AD. I have not used Thomas as a source for proving anything Jesus said or did. Again, that you would make things up like this in a desperate attempt to get dirt on me is ridiculous.

You equate them as equal to the canonical gospels in historicity when they are far from it.

dm: And the reference above? I was talking about the sources of Clement, who wrote around 100 AD, so I couldn't possibly have been saying that Clement was using sources written in 150 AD. Hello?
Not sure what you are saying here.

ed:None of those variations have any effect on historic Christian doctrine, including the ones you call significant.

dm: What they show is that the Bible got edited.

Would one of you lurkers please explain to Ed that I say, "The edits we know of show that the Bible got edited?" I could tell Ed that a million times, and he would ignore that I say this.

I have never denied that the bible was edited, but none of the edits are significant as I have demonstrated throughout this thread.

ed: I didn't say I know for certain but there is absolutely no evidence for them. There is strong evidence that they were in the custody of the early church which was primarily Judaic and they considered scripture sacred and sacrosanct and therefore not to be modified on penalty of damnation by God. They believed in moral absolutes which I demonstrated earlier with sociological studies generally makes people more moral and therefore less likely to write falsehoods.

dm: Flapdoodle. You have produced no studies that say Jews had higher moral standards and were less likely to publish falsehoods than other peoples. You simply made this up. If you have a racist study like this, please produce it.

I didn't say jews specifically, I said people who attend church regularly are more law abiding and honest than people who don't. Check the General Social Survey of 2000-2008.

dm: Multiple times I have given you evidence that the gospels of 150 AD were different from the originals. Every time I say it you divert attention, and refuse to acknowledge what I am saying. It would be a waste of time to tell you the evidence again, yes?

You have not provided any evidence that they are significantly different. All the differences are minor and unimportant.

ed: No, most of those are not undisputed transition forms. Why do you think Stephen Jay Gould came up with Punctuated Equilibrium?

dm: The transitional fossil forms may be disputed by uneducated people, yes, but within the scientific community there is overwhelming agreement that creatures like archaeopteryx are transitionals.

I notice you were unable to answer my question. If there was total agreement then PE would never have been invented.

ed: For example, basically modern-like bird fossils have been found in strata long before Archaeopteryx, so it plainly cannot be a transition form.

dm: Flapdoodle. Produce your evidence that there was a modern bird that dates older than archaeopteryx.
Three birds older than Archie: Anchiornus, Xiaotingia, and Aurornis.
Maybe not exactly modern birds but the evidence points to these three being birds nonetheless, so it cannot be a transitional form for the origin of birds.
 
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Ed1wolf

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You didn't even read the Carrier article about Luke and Josephus, and yet you can tell us what he says? Sorry, he give strong reasons for thinking Luke was after Josephus. You simply ignored what Carrier wrote and made up a straw man argument for Carrier that Carrier does not make.



Uh no, there were no modern birds before archaeopteryx. If you think there were, please cite your source.


Uh, the anti-Marcionite prologue is thought to be from the fourth century, so no, it is not an early testimony to the authorship of Luke. See Anti-Marcionite Prologues .
Umm, even your own link says the prologue to Luke was written in 150 AD.
 
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