Is water baptism a requirment to be saved

[Der Alte]

If baptism is not essential to salvation and if baptism was not preached when the gospel was preached, then what biblical logical reason can you give as to why both the eunuch and the jailer were immediately baptized afterward being preached to?

O-B-E-D-I-E-N-C-E

 

[miknik5]

Whoever it is who performed the baptism.
We are baptized INTO Christ and INTO Christ's death - but we are not baptized BY Him

Yes we are and yes some have been and yes that's why 1 John 2:27 is TRUTH

Further John's testimony: HE will baptize with THE SPIRIT and with Fire

YEP

HE DOES

(ps I'll be extra careful with autocorrect from now on. I don't like to give "my friends" ammunition against me)

 

[miknik5]

What did Jesus say to Nicodemus in John 3:5??

Jesus said you are a teacher of the law and you don't understand?

A Jew knew before he could come into the presence of the holy glory he had to first consecrate/wash/purify hinself

Water baptism is symbolic of that need and an outward declaration of that need

When John came preaching water baptism he was in a sense telling
Israel that they were unclean. Those who listened, obeyed and were washed.

Not surprisingly the teachers of the law couldn't obey . Because if they did, they were publicly declaring themselves also unclean before GOD

 

[Der Alte]

Where are you getting this nonsense??
The word used in Titus 3:5 is not "Loutron" - it is παλιγγενεσια (pal-ing-ghen-es-ee'-ah) - and it means "NEW BIRTH".

The discussion might progress more logically if you were to read my posts. Once again, my previous post.

No Titus 3:4-6 does not emphatically say that Baptism is a new birth." If Paul had intended to say "baptism [baptizo] of rebirth" that is what he would have said, but he didn't he [Paul] chose a different word "loutron." And John 3:6 says you must be born, not reborn, of water and the spirit. Elsewhere Colossians 2:12 and Romans 6:3-4 Paul specifically said three times that baptism represented death not birth. Would you have us believe that Paul contradicts himself in Col 2:12 and Rom 6:3-4 to make Titus 3:4-6 support your belief in baptismal regeneration?​

I was not discussing παλιγγενεσια vs. βαπτίζω but λουτρόν vs. baptizo..
And παλιγγενεσία does not mean "new birth." The Greek word for new is καινός not πάλιν i.e. again.

παλιγγενεσία From G3825 and G1078; (spiritual) rebirth (the state or the act), that is, (figuratively) spiritual renovation; specifically Messianic restoration: - regeneration.​

As for John 3:5 - Jesus says that a man must be "born" of water and Spirit. HOWEVER - He is explaining what He meant in verse 3, when He said:
"Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be BORN AGAIN, he cannot see the kingdom of God."
You need to read ALL of these verses in context.
It is your cherry-picking of verses that causes you so much confusion.

You keep insisting on me reading the verses in-context but despite more than one post you have yet to address John 3:6.

Finally - the Catholic interpretation doesn't require three births, but TWO:
1. Natural Birth
2. Birth from Water and Spirit (John 3:5)

I wasn't talking about the Catholic interpretation but yours. You still have not addressed vs. 6.

John 3:6
(6) That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. ​

When Jesus was Baptized with water - the Holy Spirit appeared in the form of a dove.
Water and Spirit.

That the Holy Spirit was present at the Baptism of Jesus does not address the question before us. Was the presence of the Holy Spirit at Jesus' baptism a baptismal rebirth?

 

[scottyp588]

What if someone has aquaphobia (irrational fear of water)?

 

[Der Alte]

What if someone has aquaphobia (irrational fear of water)?

My wife has aquaphobia. She nearly drowned as a child but she didn't have any problem when she was baptized.

 

[scottyp588]

My wife has aquaphobia. She nearly drowned as a child but she didn't have any problem when she was baptized.

One (possibly) out 19 million Americans that suffer was able to be baptized. But what if the others actually resist it?

 

[Der Alte]

One (possibly) out 19 million Americans that suffer was able to be baptized. But what if the others actually resist it?

A pastor I knew some years ago told of visiting the dying bed ridden husband of one of his congregants. After some time the man accepted Jesus and asked to be baptized. The pastor said that he was bed ridden and they couldn't do it. The man said use this glass of water. The pastor was upset and refused saying that would not be scriptural baptism.
My thoughts on the matter is if I could bring comfort to a dying man with a glass of water , he would get sprinkled albeit scriptural baptism is full immersion.

 

[scottyp588]

A pastor I knew some years ago told of visiting the dying bed ridden husband of one of his congregants. After some time the man accepted Jesus and asked to be baptized. The pastor said that he was bed ridden and they couldn't do it. The man said use this glass of water. The pastor was upset and refused saying that would not be scriptural baptism.
My thoughts on the matter is if I could bring comfort to a dying man with a glass of water , he would get sprinkled albeit scriptural baptism is full immersion.

Almost sounds real.

 

[Dave-W]

The command in Acts 2:38 to be baptized is a command Peter is giving to his hearers and not to himself.

Peter was implementing the command already given to him by the Lord Himself in Matt 28.

 

[LoveofTruth]

The eunuch and jailer were not baptized for no reason or not taught about baptism.

The Eunuch had already previously been to Jerusalem and was a convert to Judaism. If a prison became a convert and was a Gentile, they had to be submerged in water by the Jews and circumcised, and some sources say they had to offer two turtle doves. But this was the Jewish Halakah law or oral tradition for dealing with Gentile converts. The Eunuch asked what hinders him from being baptized? He seemed to have this understanding from a previous baptism to the Jewish belief. Remember Philip was a Jew and still in some sense under the law as many of the other jews were as well, peter was also. We read in Acts 15 and 21 that the Jews still struggled with the law and yet even if they were struggling with it they did not put it on the Gentiles. In Acts 21 read it and see how many Jews that believed were still zealous for the law and the customs ( Halakah law or oral traditions if the Jews, of which water baptism of gentiles was one). Water baptism was not new to the Jews, There was arguments before Johns water baptism about whether or not Gentiles should be submurged or sprinkled, from what I remember reading about.

In Acts we see the jewish believers still following the law and Johns water baptism was part of the OT covenant and unto repentance ( not unto salvation). Paul was not sent to baptise but to preach the gospel. He was the apostle to the gentiles, and God is not bringing the Gentiles under the law and old covenant and then slowly bringing them out again, for the old covenant was fading away and ready to vanish. The jews had it imposed upon them until the time of reformation, which was as the new covenant took place of the old. But it took time for the jews being so weaned up in the law and their conscience needed to be clean in this and the understanding or else they can not go against their conscience. Imagine Peter getting up on pentecost and saying to all the Jews that got saved, that the law and temple and priest and sacrifices are all done, finished, no need for them any more or even for this place. First of all he did not have the understanding of that fully yet and so he could not say such a thing, and the ones hearing did not understand that either. The diverse washings ( baptisms in Greek) and carnal ordinances were IMPOSED upon them ( the Jews not Gentiles) until the time of reformation, Hebrews 9.

Jesus also said to them before his death that he had many things to say and to judge of them but they were not able to bear it then. But when the Holy Ghost came he would guide them into al truth. Peter in Acts 15 was guided and said that he and the gentiles would be saved by the grace of God.

From Christ's great commission (Mat 28:19,20; Mark 16:15-16) baptism is how disciples are made. Also, the disciples in the great commission were told to teach new disciples to " to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you" which includes baptism which Christ commanded.

No in Matthew 28 it does not say "water". It is on your part to prove he speaks of water baptism there. And this formula of Father Son and Holy Ghost is never used in such a way in the New testament for water baptism.

Jesus said while he was with the disciples he kept them in the fathers name. The name of the Lord is a strong tower the righteous run into it and are safe. To teach all nations does something. The teaching ( by the Spirit and power) immerses them into the name (or character, life power attributes) of the Father Son and Holy Ghost. To be baptized into Christ or in to the name of jesus is to be immersed into the power character and life of Christ as a new creation. We put on Christ and are baptized into him. For as many as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. This is not water baptism. This is the one ( saving ) baptism which all must have. This one baptism is for as many as have been baptized into Christ. For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body. That body is the body of Christ. 1 Cor 12:13. This is the saving baptism, and it is not the putting away of the filth of the flesh ( or an outward washing with water) but it is an inward work where we are in Christ and he in us, where we have the witness in ourself and our conscience also break witness. We have a good conscience ( with knowledge) of the resurrection of Christ and a full assurance of hope by this and the reality of being risen with Christ as well. Noah and the ark was a type of this. They were saved in the ark, we are saved in Christ. They were lifted up into the heavens above the judgement of the old world, and we are raised up with Christ into the heavenliness dead to the old life and world. We find rest in Christ and Noahs name means resting place.

Again, Christ NEVER taught belief only and neither did His disciples including Paul and Peter.

but scripture says

John 3:36
"He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life:..."

John 5:24
Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life."

John 6:47
Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life.

and

1 John 5: 4,5

"4 For whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh the world, even our faith.

5 Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?"

and

Romans 8

"
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation."


and

1 Corinthians 15:1-4

"1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.

3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:"

and

"Galatians 3

"
2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?

3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?

4 Have ye suffered so many things in vain? if it be yet in vain.

5 He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?

6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

7 Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham.

8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

9 So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham.

10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse:

 

[LoveofTruth]

John 3:5 mentions one baptism (one birth) that has 2 elements: 1) water 2) Spirit.
The physical birth (corruptible seed) has nothing to do with this one birth 1 Peter 1:23

I have shown by comparing born again verses how "water" of Jn 3:5 is water baptism. So the element water refers to baptism. The role of the Spirit is that the Spirit is the author of the word that instructs men on how to be saved, hence men are born again by the word....the Corinthians were begotten through the gospel.

The gospel is to be obeyed 1 Thessalonians 1:8 and it takes works to obey.

I read 1 Cor 15:1-6 and I did not see the word grace specifically mentioned or the blood of Christ or repentance, confession, etc. So does that mean these are all unnecessary to salvation? Hardly.

Sorry to say, but you couldn't be further from the truth. Jesus said

"6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit."

He is speaking of TWO births here. The one is of water ( natural birth, born of the flesh and it is only flesh) the other is to be born of the spirit and this cannot be seen, like the wind.

the one saving baptism, is into Christ by the Spirit. There are about 7 baptisms in scripture but only one saving one and the saving one is not water baptism. after baptism belonged to the old covenant for the Jews and it was among the diverse washings and carnal ordinances imposed upon them until the time of reformation

 

[LoveofTruth]

a lot of things we read in Acts were done by the Jewish believers who were still zealous of the law and customs of the Jews. This is not for Gentiles to follow in. Read hebrews 8 and 9 and Acts 15 and 21 slowly and over and over again in prayer

this aspect is often missed by many

 

[LoveofTruth]

John 3:5 mentions one baptism (one birth) that has 2 elements: 1) water 2) Spirit.
The physical birth (corruptible seed) has nothing to do with this one birth 1 Peter 1:23

I have shown by comparing born again verses how "water" of Jn 3:5 is water baptism. So the element water refers to baptism. The role of the Spirit is that the Spirit is the author of the word that instructs men on how to be saved, hence men are born again by the word....the Corinthians were begotten through the gospel.

The gospel is to be obeyed 1 Thessalonians 1:8 and it takes works to obey.

I read 1 Cor 15:1-6 and I did not see the word grace specifically mentioned or the blood of Christ or repentance, confession, etc. So does that mean these are all unnecessary to salvation? Hardly.

some more thoughts I had about this

Many will object to the teaching that water baptism is not part of the gospel and is not needed for salvation and refer to John 3:5 where Jesus said “..Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” They interpret this to say that you must be water bapstised and have the Spirit to be born again.

This objection is easily answered by Jesus himself. Jesus does say that a man must be born again in John 3:3,” Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.”, but then Nicodemus ask him “Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother’s womb, and be born”. So Jesus answered this simple statement about being born again (John 3:3), he did not add of water and the Spirit, then Nicodemus ask his question, and mentions going back into the mothers womb and how can this be? Jesus then answers his question and says more than his first statement he says, “Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. 6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.” John 3:5,6. He ansered Nicodumus question about going back into the mothers womb abd being born again, when he said “That which is born of the flesh is flesh;” speaking of the natural birth, or born of water. When a womans water breaks the baby come out with the water. This is the flesh birth, and then he says “and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.” John 3:6. Here refering to the spirital birth. Jesus is clearly defining the two births here. Nicodemus may have thought that he was a Jew and saved because of his natural birth and being a Child of Abraham. But Jesus is really saying to him that you cannot be born again into Gods kingdom unless you have this spiritual birth from above. If some still argue I ask them what does Jesus mean in context when he says that which is born of the flesh is flesh?, why bring that up in context right there.

Jesus further defines what this spiritual birth is and says “The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit.” John 3:8. If Jesus meant to say water baopsitm and the Spirit are how a man gets born again, then you could see this happening, you could look over at the water and say now he is born again. But no, Jesus says this birth is like the wind you cannot see it. This is because the new birth is by the word of God ( 1 Peter 1:21) and is an inward work in the heart, by the engrfted word which is able to save the soul. This new birth is the true saving batism into Christ, this is the grace of God that saves. Jesus said that the “flesh profiteth nothing, the words that i speak unto you, they are spirit and they are life. This is where the spiritual birth comes. Not by flesh birth or water baptism.

 

[TheSeabass]

Again I believe it's something God wants you to do after you're saved, not to get saved. It's an outward expression of what's already taken place.

The bible does not define baptism as something one does AFTER they are saved. In many verses, baptism is put BEFORE salvation, not after.

Secondly, is baptism something God WANTS or something God COMMANDED?

 

[TheSeabass]

some more thoughts I had about this

Many will object to the teaching that water baptism is not part of the gospel and is not needed for salvation and refer to John 3:5 where Jesus said “..Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” They interpret this to say that you must be water bapstised and have the Spirit to be born again.

This objection is easily answered by Jesus himself. Jesus does say that a man must be born again in John 3:3,” Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.”, but then Nicodemus ask him “Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother’s womb, and be born”. So Jesus answered this simple statement about being born again (John 3:3), he did not add of water and the Spirit, then Nicodemus ask his question, and mentions going back into the mothers womb and how can this be? Jesus then answers his question and says more than his first statement he says, “Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. 6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.” John 3:5,6. He ansered Nicodumus question about going back into the mothers womb abd being born again, when he said “That which is born of the flesh is flesh;” speaking of the natural birth, or born of water. When a womans water breaks the baby come out with the water. This is the flesh birth, and then he says “and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.” John 3:6. Here refering to the spirital birth. Jesus is clearly defining the two births here. Nicodemus may have thought that he was a Jew and saved because of his natural birth and being a Child of Abraham. But Jesus is really saying to him that you cannot be born again into Gods kingdom unless you have this spiritual birth from above. If some still argue I ask them what does Jesus mean in context when he says that which is born of the flesh is flesh?, why bring that up in context right there.

Jesus further defines what this spiritual birth is and says “The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit.” John 3:8. If Jesus meant to say water baopsitm and the Spirit are how a man gets born again, then you could see this happening, you could look over at the water and say now he is born again. But no, Jesus says this birth is like the wind you cannot see it. This is because the new birth is by the word of God ( 1 Peter 1:21) and is an inward work in the heart, by the engrfted word which is able to save the soul. This new birth is the true saving batism into Christ, this is the grace of God that saves. Jesus said that the “flesh profiteth nothing, the words that i speak unto you, they are spirit and they are life. This is where the spiritual birth comes. Not by flesh birth or water baptism.

One can see another being water baptized, but what is unseen, what is spiritual in nature is the 'circumcision made without hands", the forgiveness of sins where God is removing the body of sin when one is baptized, Colossians 2:11-14. Even though I cannot see the wind I can hear it, feel it and see the effects of it when it blows. Likewise even though I cannot see what takes place during baptism, I know the effects of it. Later in the context John was baptizing where there was 'much water'- John 3:23. John's water baptism was for the remission of sins (Mark 1:4) so even though one can see another being water baptized, one cannot see the forgiveness that takes place.


Why would the term "birth" be associated with what takes places spiritually? When an infant is "born", it is born into the world pure and without sin. Likewise when one is "born again" he rises from the water grave of baptism also pure and without sin having just had all his sins remitted.

 

[TheSeabass]

O-B-E-D-I-E-N-C-E

If baptism was not part of the gospel message preached to the eunuch or jailer, then how would they know they need to obediently be baptized? Evidently teaching the gospel is teaching baptism.

Secondly, if being baptized is obedience then for that reason alone makes it essential to salvation for not being baptized would be disobedience/unrighteousness/sinful.

 

[S.O.J.I.A.]

we may be confusing the question of whether someone can be saved if they are not baptized with whether or not were are commanded to be baptized.

 

[TheSeabass]

Peter was implementing the command already given to him by the Lord Himself in Matt 28.

Again, Peter is commanded his lost hearers to be baptized..."be baptized every one of you". Who is the "you" Peter is commanding to be baptized?

 

[TheSeabass]

The Eunuch had already previously been to Jerusalem and was a convert to Judaism. If a prison became a convert and was a Gentile, they had to be submerged in water by the Jews and circumcised, and some sources say they had to offer two turtle doves. But this was the Jewish Halakah law or oral tradition for dealing with Gentile converts. The Eunuch asked what hinders him from being baptized? He seemed to have this understanding from a previous baptism to the Jewish belief. Remember Philip was a Jew and still in some sense under the law as many of the other jews were as well, peter was also. We read in Acts 15 and 21 that the Jews still struggled with the law and yet even if they were struggling with it they did not put it on the Gentiles. In Acts 21 read it and see how many Jews that believed were still zealous for the law and the customs ( Halakah law or oral traditions if the Jews, of which water baptism of gentiles was one). Water baptism was not new to the Jews, There was arguments before Johns water baptism about whether or not Gentiles should be submurged or sprinkled, from what I remember reading about.

In Acts we see the jewish believers still following the law and Johns water baptism was part of the OT covenant and unto repentance ( not unto salvation). Paul was not sent to baptise but to preach the gospel. He was the apostle to the gentiles, and God is not bringing the Gentiles under the law and old covenant and then slowly bringing them out again, for the old covenant was fading away and ready to vanish. The jews had it imposed upon them until the time of reformation, which was as the new covenant took place of the old. But it took time for the jews being so weaned up in the law and their conscience needed to be clean in this and the understanding or else they can not go against their conscience. Imagine Peter getting up on pentecost and saying to all the Jews that got saved, that the law and temple and priest and sacrifices are all done, finished, no need for them any more or even for this place. First of all he did not have the understanding of that fully yet and so he could not say such a thing, and the ones hearing did not understand that either. The diverse washings ( baptisms in Greek) and carnal ordinances were IMPOSED upon them ( the Jews not Gentiles) until the time of reformation, Hebrews 9.

Jesus also said to them before his death that he had many things to say and to judge of them but they were not able to bear it then. But when the Holy Ghost came he would guide them into al truth. Peter in Acts 15 was guided and said that he and the gentiles would be saved by the grace of God.

There was no Jewish tradition of being baptized in the name of the Lord for remission of sins. This is a NT requirement of all Jews and Gentiles. In Acts 15:11, Peter said Jews and Gentiles are saved in a "like manner way". The like manner way teh Jews in ACts 2 and Gentiles in Acts 10 were saved was baptism in the name of the Lord for remission of sins.

No in Matthew 28 it does not say "water". It is on your part to prove he speaks of water baptism there. And this formula of Father Son and Holy Ghost is never used in such a way in the New testament for water baptism.

Jesus said while he was with the disciples he kept them in the fathers name. The name of the Lord is a strong tower the righteous run into it and are safe. To teach all nations does something. The teaching ( by the Spirit and power) immerses them into the name (or character, life power attributes) of the Father Son and Holy Ghost. To be baptized into Christ or in to the name of jesus is to be immersed into the power character and life of Christ as a new creation. We put on Christ and are baptized into him. For as many as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. This is not water baptism. This is the one ( saving ) baptism which all must have. This one baptism is for as many as have been baptized into Christ. For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body. That body is the body of Christ. 1 Cor 12:13. This is the saving baptism, and it is not the putting away of the filth of the flesh ( or an outward washing with water) but it is an inward work where we are in Christ and he in us, where we have the witness in ourself and our conscience also break witness. We have a good conscience ( with knowledge) of the resurrection of Christ and a full assurance of hope by this and the reality of being risen with Christ as well. Noah and the ark was a type of this. They were saved in the ark, we are saved in Christ. They were lifted up into the heavens above the judgement of the old world, and we are raised up with Christ into the heavenliness dead to the old life and world. We find rest in Christ and Noahs name means resting place.

The great commission (Matthew 28:19,20; Mark 16:15,16; Luke 24:42) says nothing about any kind of spirit baptism. The baptism of the great commission had disciples/humans administering water baptism and humans can administer water baptism as the Phillip did with the eunuch. Why did the Spirit send Phillip to the eunuch Acts 8:29? To teach him and water baptism him. NO "spirit baptism" here at all.

By the time Paul penned the Ephesian epistle he said there was ONE baptism Eph 4:4,5. Proper exegesis requires that a word be understood literally unless something in the context proves it is being used figuratively. Baptizo means an immersion therefore the one baptism of Eph 4:5 refers to a literal immersion. F.F. Bruce > “baptism in the New Testament is always baptism in water unless the context shows it to be something else; that is to say, the word is always to be understood literally unless the context indicates a figurative meaning” (Questions Answered, p. 106).


Jn 3:5--------------spirit+++++++++water>>>>>>>>>>in the kingdom
1Cor12:13--------spirit++++++++baptized>>>>>>>>>>in the body
Tts 3:5-----------Holy Spirit+++++laver of water>>>>>>>saved

The bible being its own best commentary gives crystal clear insight that water is equivalent to baptized which is equivalent to laver of water just as spirit is equivalent to spirit which is equivalent to Holy Spirit.

but scripture says

John 3:36
"He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life:..."

John 5:24
Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life."

John 6:47
Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life.

and

1 John 5: 4,5

"4 For whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh the world, even our faith.

5 Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?"

and

Romans 8

"
9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation."


and

1 Corinthians 15:1-4

"1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.

3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:"

and

"Galatians 3

"
2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?

3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?

4 Have ye suffered so many things in vain? if it be yet in vain.

5 He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?

6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

7 Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham.

8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

9 So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham.

10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse:

Just a couple of problems you have with your interpretation of these verses:

1) You purposely cherry picked verses that mention "belief" while also purposely ignoring verses that require repentance Luke 13:3; confession Matthew 10:32-33 and baptism Mark 16:16 for salvation. One has to examine "all the counsel of God" (Acts 20:27) to determine what is necessary to being saved. Cherry picking verses that mention belief then adding the word 'alone' just creates contradictions within scripture.

2) As I have demonstrated in many posts already in this thread, believe is used as a synecdoche where it includes baptism. The jailer "having believed" in Acts 16:34 INCLUDES his being baptized in verse 33. "Believed' in Acts 2:44 INCLUDED being baptized in v41.