The "Original Design / Plan" Argument & Why It's Irrelevant
(Note: I'm speaking of a specific form of the argument)
I've heard this argument growing up, but it seems to be popping up in my life a lot lately, so I thought I'd discuss it a bit.
The argument is typically used when discussing marriage and sex, and in my experience, never used in any other way (although it could). I'm solely talking about the pre-fall variation of the argument (read more below).
When discussing marriage outside of a traditional "Christian" worldview, an example of it is as follows:
I've seen many variations depending on the topic, but in the "pre-fall" variant, it presupposes two things:
Why It's Irrelevant?
Well, mainly because it proves nothing, or rather, it doesn't disprove the original position. This is due to the presuppositions being made, consider, I'm not necessarily convinced one can definitively know God's original plan, at least not in a way that they can speak into the lives of others, and even if they did, we do not actually have the ability to live a pre-fall life.
A common criticism here is, people will simply say we do have the ability to live a pre-fall life through Jesus, but this is in error. We have the ability to restore the relationship through Jesus, but we cannot remove the punishment. I could ask my wife if after she accepted Jesus, she magically felt no pain during childbirth (Gen. 3:16), but I'd be risking a punch to the face.
One of the more frustrating aspects of this argument, is that it's generally only used in reference to sex and marriage. I mean, I've never heard anyone use this argument to convince people to join nudest colonies and run around naked (Gen. 2:25), isn't that how God originally designed us? Or use this argument to convince me to be vegan? (Gen. 1:29-30) Nope, by some sort of philosophical wizardry the argument only applies to sex an marriage.
Have you heard this argument before? Have you used it, and if so, in what context? Do you like it, or dis-like it?
Love to know your thoughts!
Tetra.
[EDIT] It's use in scripture doesn't necessarily prove it's use in the way I mean. If scripture references the pre-fall state, it doesn't necessarily mean the post fall action is a sin. Consider, Jesus references the "original plan" to define His position regarding divorce (Mark 10:2-6), yet we see divorce can still be permitted.
(Note: I'm speaking of a specific form of the argument)
I've heard this argument growing up, but it seems to be popping up in my life a lot lately, so I thought I'd discuss it a bit.
The argument is typically used when discussing marriage and sex, and in my experience, never used in any other way (although it could). I'm solely talking about the pre-fall variation of the argument (read more below).
When discussing marriage outside of a traditional "Christian" worldview, an example of it is as follows:
"I disagree with you, since God's original design (or plan) was one man and one woman"
a more crude variation"God made Adam and Eve, not Adam and Steve" (note, this isn't a discussion regarding same-sex marriage, just the usage of the argument)
I've seen many variations depending on the topic, but in the "pre-fall" variant, it presupposes two things:
- An individual can definitively know God's original plan, or interpret scripture in such a way they definitively know.
- We have the capacity to live a pre-fall life.
Why It's Irrelevant?
Well, mainly because it proves nothing, or rather, it doesn't disprove the original position. This is due to the presuppositions being made, consider, I'm not necessarily convinced one can definitively know God's original plan, at least not in a way that they can speak into the lives of others, and even if they did, we do not actually have the ability to live a pre-fall life.
A common criticism here is, people will simply say we do have the ability to live a pre-fall life through Jesus, but this is in error. We have the ability to restore the relationship through Jesus, but we cannot remove the punishment. I could ask my wife if after she accepted Jesus, she magically felt no pain during childbirth (Gen. 3:16), but I'd be risking a punch to the face.
One of the more frustrating aspects of this argument, is that it's generally only used in reference to sex and marriage. I mean, I've never heard anyone use this argument to convince people to join nudest colonies and run around naked (Gen. 2:25), isn't that how God originally designed us? Or use this argument to convince me to be vegan? (Gen. 1:29-30) Nope, by some sort of philosophical wizardry the argument only applies to sex an marriage.
Have you heard this argument before? Have you used it, and if so, in what context? Do you like it, or dis-like it?
Love to know your thoughts!
Tetra.
[EDIT] It's use in scripture doesn't necessarily prove it's use in the way I mean. If scripture references the pre-fall state, it doesn't necessarily mean the post fall action is a sin. Consider, Jesus references the "original plan" to define His position regarding divorce (Mark 10:2-6), yet we see divorce can still be permitted.
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