StanJ
Student & Correct Handler of God's Word.
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Except back in genesis 1 on days 1-3 the moon and hence lunar cycle was not made yet. So it is hard to measure the cycles at that point as being exactly the same length in today's time when the moon was not even made yet. Nowhere does it say how long the cycles are in days 1-4 in today's human time.
Actually the lunar cycle was in effect as soon as God created the universe. God created day and night on the first day, v3-5, so the day and night was already effective in day one.
This connotation is not absolute and in all places, as 2 Peter 3:8 shows. In Genesis 1 we are talking about a much different context than the normal days of today. we are talking about a time when the luna and sola were not even made then to count how long a solar day was.
As I already explained that is not a fact. Hebrew scholars in general interpret yom in Genesis 1 to be an actual day as we perceive it today, which is confirmed in Exodus 20. Connotations always have to be based on the context of the text they are used in. In the context of 2nd Peter 3, it is referring to how some thought Jesus was delayed in his coming. Please refer to the overall context of verses 3-9. Again the physical attributes of the universe as well as light were created on day 1.
The Bible simply does not say or specify how long a day was in Genesis 1. It is not clear it was a normal sun day or people day if the sun wasn't even made yet and nor were people.
As I'm just showing it is indeed specified based on the actual Hebrew language and when everything was created in day one. I suggest you re-read Genesis 1:1-5.
And then there is 2 Peter 3:8, a day with the Lord is a thousand years with man.
It does not say how long the days were in Genesis 1-4. Are we talking about the Lord's days or Man's days or what? Man was not even around then. So the Bible does not specify how long the days were.
What 2 Peter 3:8 actually says is; But do not forget this one thing, dear friends: With the Lord a day is like a thousand years, and a thousand years are like a day.
Peter is actually quoting Psalm 90:4 here, which is metaphorical in nature and not literal. Also the point is that this is how the Lord perceives time not as we perceive time nor as Moses perceive time when he wrote Genesis 1.
Jesus knew Hebrew directly and spoke Aramaic as his own language. Whatever he said was probably even in Aramaic, a language with very similar roots like Hebrew. It's like god and Dios in two indo european languages when the words are the same. Proper comparison is possible.
In fact, Hebrew Yom is a late Hebrew/Aramaic word:
http://biblehub.com/hebrew/3117.htm
So in Jesus' common speech he probably said Yom anyway in the gospels.
Bottom line: Day can mean different lengths of time.
Jesus normally spoke Hebrew and there's only a few passages in the New Testament which indicate that he spoke Aramaic. Regardless of the language they spoke, the New Testament is written in Greek and is not the issue. We're talking about the Hebrew and what it said.
And we haven't even gotten into apocalyptic prophetic "days" yet , as in "that day" when the Messiah comes and "that day" when the apocalypse occurs.
Well that indeed would be a different issue in a different connotation whether it be that day or end of the day of the Lord the context of where does used will determine what exactly it means. The context of where yom is used in Genesis 1 means day as a 24 hour/lunar day.
http://www.icr.org/article/meaning-day-genesis/
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