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IT DOESN'T HAVE TO. All it has to do is say that the document I used as a source is authentic.
Not at all. Jesus and the Apostles were not sola scriptura, but used the oral Torah. Furthermore, the Apostles used many oral teachings of Jesus, as there was NO New Testament, remember. But that is SOOOO far off topic that we should just agree to disagree for now.For many non-Catholics the conclusion on that point is that the RCC does not pass that test and therefore history is correct in showing that the RCC arises centuries after the Apostles as a group with divergent teaching from the Apostles.
My source basically documents that it is the consensus of scholars that Ignatius letter to Smyrna is authentic. You can go to a zillion sites and read the same thing. To doubt it is to doubt the consensus of scholars.Is there some point where the link you have for the document you used - proves that your document is not a fake made to look like Ignatius wrote it - or faked to add material to some prior letter? And do we really think Ignatius knew anything about the Pope - at all -- having made mention of none?
My source basically documents that it is the consensus of scholars that Ignatius letter to Smyrna is authentic. You can go to a zillion sites and read the same thing. To doubt it is to doubt the consensus of scholars.
Not at all. Jesus and the Apostles were not sola scriptura,
I wasn't using Ignatius to say anything about the Pope. I was using Ignatius to point out that the church called the Catholic Church in 108 AD was the same church as that begun at pentecost and spread by the apostles. .
The article would have been written by any person who is a scholar of early church literature. It can of course be altered by someone with an axe to grind, but then wikipedea would have changed it right back. This information would also be known by any person who has taken a course in early church literature. It is not obscure. It is ALL OVER the net, easily verified.They documented it? How? Where? Provide the quote please?
Except it wasn't called the Christian church in 108 AD it was called the Catholic Church.Certainly we all expect the Christian church of 108 AD to be the same church that John belonged to in 90 A.D.
That is not the question - the question is whether the church of 108 had infant baptism, prayers to the dead, a pope, indulgences, the assumption of Mary, the idea of confecting the body soul and divinity of Christ, clergy with powers to do various things, votive candles and images in worship, observance of week-day-1 instead of the Bible Sabbath, persecution of the saints...
Pffft. In your dreams.
Yes, it had infant baptism, a pope, Real Presence in Eucharist, Clergy with the power to confer sacraments like ordination or anointing of the sick, worship on Sunday, persecution of the saints, and more. While other things may have evolved with time,
Indeed, even from the earliest times, the church kept the Sabbath, for instance:Bob I know you truly believe that the Early Church kept the Sabbath...
BobRyan said: ↑
There were a great many elders and presbyters - but only one apostolic successor in all of the NT - and he is found in Acts 1.
1. In all of that - you came up with no example of apostolic succession from the Bible.
2. I point to Acts 1 - and it is not that long a chapter. But it does show Apostolic succession for one Apostle.
Judas.
1. The original question was about apostolic succession - and there not one example of it outside of Jude 1. Simply appointing leaders at each local church - was not the same as appointing an Apostle to succeed Judas as we see in Acts 1. I think that point is pretty clear to all of us.[/qote]
Ordaining a bishop is how apostolic succession is conferred.
Apostolic succession is another term for apostles ordaining bishops who ordained bishops.
You, on the other hand, have ZERO evidence of scripture of men ordaining themselves to the local level.
2. The "appoint myself your pastor" scenario you include in your post is unknown to me and almost everyone else here.
I don't think you even know what you are arguing because I don't think you know what apostolic succession means.
Paul received the laying on of hands in Damascus by Ananias
in Acts 9.
Then Paul has appointed by the church in Acts 13 via fasting and prayer and laying on of hands.
2 As they ministered to the Lord, and fasted, the Holy Ghost said, Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work whereunto I have called them.
3 And when they had fasted and prayed, and laid their hands on them, they sent them away.
Paul then went on to battle the Gnostics who appointed themselves.
The idea of individuals calling themselves is unknown to all of us.
The idea that someone evangelizes his friends and neighbors - is known to all of us because God has called all of us to do that. See Matt 28. See 1 Thess 1.
6 And ye became followers of us, and of the Lord, having received the word in much affliction, with joy of the Holy Ghost.
7 So that ye were ensamples to all that believe in Macedonia and Achaia.
8 For from you sounded out the word of the Lord not only in Macedonia and Achaia, but also in every place your faith to God-ward is spread abroad; so that we need not to speak any thing.
Sola Scriptura
Bible details matter.
And it is not at all condemned in the bible
Quoting scripture is not an argument. Quoting scripture is used in your argument when you explain how it supports you. Yes, the self appointed were a problem in the bible.
Apostolic successions means an apostle ordains a bishop who ordains other bishops and deacons and presbyters. Such that every bishop is ordained by someone going back to the apostles. Being ordained is being put in authority. Christ gave that authority to bishops and then bishops to other bishops. That's the model we see in the bible.
Creating your own congregations and making yourself pastor is found NO WHERE in the bible. No one declared themselves bishop, priest or deacon.
Turns out - Mark 7 is indeed in the Bible
It is the Bible that debunks those false teachings.
All "details matter" - even the RCC's own Catholic Digest documents how "infant baptism evolved" over time within the RCC.
There is NO first century - NT teaching about purgatory, indulgences, praying to the dead, confecting the body soul and divinity of Christ, extermination of the saints by church leaders, inquisition style torture... you name it. I think we can all see that point.
How many of the Protestant saints were burned alive by the RCC vs how many people did the NT first century church burn alive?
This is another pretty easy fact of history that all can see clearly.
When was it that the Pagan Roman Empire vacated the city of Rome? was it in the first century?? I don't think so. Constantinople would not be established for 3 centuries after the time of Paul.
Well, we could begin with 1054 AD, as a starting point, and work backwards.