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Calvinism Question

Gavino

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Thank you again to those who took the time to answer my questions and provide me with a Calvinist perspective on the issues. I’ve been thinking and chewing on this over the past couple of days, and I had some more questions based on the answers I received in Skala’s post. Thank you for your time spent in talking to me about this.

You ask "If they are dead, they shouldn't be able to sin". This is not true. Spiritually dead does not mean they cannot sin. It means they cannot do anything spiritually positive. Like a corpse cannot do anything physically good, it just sits there and rots and gets stinky and corrupts. A spiritually dead person can still do stuff, they just can't do "good" stuff. Romans 8:8ff says that without the spirit of Christ, you cannot do anything that is pleasing to God. So a person without the spirit can still do stuff and make choices, but those choices cannot be pleasing to God.

A spiritually dead person still has a will and a mind and desires, etc. He acts in accordance with those desires. But what are those desires? The reformed position is that he does not desire Christ, thus will never choose Christ. So the spiritually dead person is still acting in accordance with their own desires. They just never desire Christ because the gospel is foolishness to them and they are hostile to Christ and they love their sin too much. They are "blind" and don't have "ears to hear". That is why regeneration is necessary if anyone is going to make a positive decision for Christ.

I absolutely agree with you Skala, unregenerate man is spiritually dead, and he certainly acts the way that Paul described in Ephesians 2. There’s no question about that. What confuses me is the Calvinist interpretation of what “dead” means. The Calvinist wants me to believe that the unsaved CANNOT believe, because dead people can’t believe. That makes sense, until the Calvinist also wants me to believe that the unsaved CAN sin, even though dead people can’t sin! I agree with you that a corpse can’t do anything good. But it can’t do anything bad, either. You used the example of decay and connected it to sin. But I’m not sure we can compare the two. Decay isn’t something that a corpse actively chooses to do, it’s something that happens to a corpse. Sin doesn’t just happen to the unsaved; the unsaved actively choose to sin. If being dead doesn’t mean that they can’t sin, why should it mean that they can’t believe?

These kinds of arguments and your conclusions are non sequiturs. You are trying to combine two different things. Just because Paul used the analogy of death in regards to a believers life does not mean he means the same thing as when he uses the analogy of death for our pre-saved state before God quickens us. Like I said, you are trying to make the two the same. Let his analogy of death be in the context of one thing, and let it be in the context of the other thing. Your argumentation is likened to when we see the word "Creation" in the bible. In Gen 1 it refers to physically bringing something out of nothing. Yet in the NT we are told we are "new creations" in Christ. Does that mean we are literally a brand new person with a new body and stuff that was created again ex-nihilo? No of course not. Let each word and analogy work within its own context.

Hmm---I’m afraid I’m not quite seeing it. The object that is being created in the context of “creation” may change, but the word still refers to the basic principle of creating something, whether that be body or spirit. Before we were saved in Ephesians 2 we were dead in sin and dead to Christ; after we are saved in Romans 6, we are dead in Christ and dead to sin. What we are “dead in” and what we are “dead to” might change, but it seems to me that the principle of the word “dead” referring to our relationship with something remains the same, and both of these passages are referring to our relationship with God and sin. The question that keeps bugging me is, since the principle appears to be the same and both passages are talking about the same thing, why should I interpret one completely different from the other?

It is curious you brought this up because if you ask me, it supports the Calvinistic position. If someone is a slave of something, they cannot simply "will themselves" to be set free. If someone is the slave of sin, and sin his master, that means he always does what the master makes him do. If someone is a slave to sin, how can they turn from that sin and trust in Christ? They have to first be set free (spiritually quickened?) before that is even a possibility. Last I checked, slaves can't become free by a intellectual choice. Their choices always are in accordance with their master.

With the utmost respect, Skala, if you believe that slave’s choices are always in accordance with their master, wouldn’t that mean that as slaves to righteousness we can only choose in accordance with righteousness?

Aren't you assuming that each of these verses is speaking of regeneration? And not, for example "eternal life"?

The concept of "spiritual life" has more than one analogy. It is referred to in John 3 as being born "from above" (born again). It is referred to being a new creation. It is referred to being dead and being resurrected. If you want to study regeneration, you should go to passages that actually talk specifically about that, rather than find vague verses that refer to "life" generically. Because then you start assuming that the author is referring to regeneration.


Good point, Skala, I’m glad you brought this up. Unfortunately, I’m a little confused by your reference to analogies. The references to regeneration in scripture don’t seem to be analogical; I believe them to be literal. Paul says that Christ is our life (Col. 3:4). We are in Him, and He is in us, and He is “the way, the truth, and The Life”. We are in Him because when we were born again, we were put in Christ, crucified with Him, buried, and raised with Him in new life (Romans 6). We are “one spirit with Him” (1 Cor. 6:17). We were dead, but now we have life. We are a new creation on the inside. We have passed from death to life, and as such we have eternal life right now (John 5:24). I don’t see Paul using these things as analogies; he states them as fact, as “this is what happened to you, this is what you are now.” We have spiritual life in Christ because we are in Him, and it’s the same as the life we gain when we are born again because that’s when we are put in Him, and all of this is eternal life because Christ’s life is eternal, and John says that we need to come to Christ and believe in Him to have life. I don’t see any distinctions being made in scripture, they all harmonize together as one. How many kinds of life do Calvinists believe there are?


Both OT and NT people can be regenerate.

Just to make sure I understand correctly, are you are saying that all the Old Testament saints were born again, and that they all had eternal life? What I don’t understand is, how could that be, considering that as NT Christians we are alive because we are in Christ? Christ is our life (Col 3:4). The only way that we can be in Him is by being born again by being put in Him, crucified, buried, and resurrected as a new creation (Romans 6). He is in us, and we are in Him. We are “one spirit with Him” (1 Cor. 6:17). This is how we are spiritually alive. We have passed from death to life, and we have eternal life right now (John 5:24). So I’m confused as to how all of these things could be true of the OT saints, since Jesus hadn’t even died yet?

Think back to John 3. Jesus was speaking of being "born again" and then scolded Nicodemus for not knowing what he was talking about. He said "Are you the teacher of Israel and do not understand these things?" If spiritual birth did not exist in theology until that time, why did Jesus expect Nicodemus to understand the concept of a new birth?

Again, think back to Ezekiel when God said that he would "take out the hearts of stone, and give them new hearts, and cause them to obey his statutes". That's a description of regeneration if I ever saw one.

But that’s just what bugs me, Skala…if that was how people were saved before Christ, why didn’t Nicodemus know about it? He’s the teacher of Israel, knows and studies the scriptures, and somehow he doesn’t know about this. This is new stuff to him. I’m familiar with the passage in Ezekiel, but it doesn’t seem to be talking about the current way that God saved people; it seems to me that it’s talking about the future, how it’s going to happen. The leaders of Israel would get together and discuss how to interpret the scriptures and the prophesies of things to come. They certainly botched it when it came to interpreting Jesus’ first coming, so I don’t think it’s too much of a stretch for them to also botch interpreting the new birth talked about in Ezekiel. So for me, the question remains…were the OT saints in Christ?

Again, thank you to whomever takes the time to help answer these questions for me. I hope that you are all having a blessed day!

In Christ,

Gavin
 
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sdowney717

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I am just thinking a little about what your thinking about.
Notice what the Lord says He will do for Israel. And in their time frame this was according to the return to the land back then. note v39
Jer 32

36 “Now therefore, thus says the Lord, the God of Israel, concerning this city of which you say, ‘It shall be delivered into the hand of the king of Babylon by the sword, by the famine, and by the pestilence’:

37 Behold, I will gather them out of all countries where I have driven them in My anger, in My fury, and in great wrath; I will bring them back to this place, and I will cause them to dwell safely. 38 They shall be My people, and I will be their God;

39 then I will give them one heart and one way, that they may fear Me forever, for the good of them and their children after them. 40 And I will make an everlasting covenant with them, that I will not turn away from doing them good; but I will put My fear in their hearts so that they will not depart from Me. 41 Yes, I will rejoice over them to do them good, and I will assuredly plant them in this land, with all My heart and with all My soul.’

42 “For thus says the Lord: ‘Just as I have brought all this great calamity on this people, so I will bring on them all the good that I have promised them. 43 And fields will be bought in this land of which you say, “It is desolate, without man or beast; it has been given into the hand of the Chaldeans.” 44 Men will buy fields for money, sign deeds and seal them, and take witnesses, in the land of Benjamin, in the places around Jerusalem, in the cities of Judah, in the cities of the mountains, in the cities of the lowland, and in the cities of the South; for I will cause their captives to return,’ says the Lord.”

A lot of God's monergism working out here.
In the old covenant people were sometimes taught to know God by other people. People were also given a heart by God to know Him. Or not given as Moses says here the people were not given a heart to know Him.

Deu 29

2 Now Moses called all Israel and said to them: “You have seen all that the Lord did before your eyes in the land of Egypt, to Pharaoh and to all his servants and to all his land— 3 the great trials which your eyes have seen, the signs, and those great wonders.

4 Yet the Lord has not given you a heart to perceive and eyes to see and ears to hear, to this very day. 5 And I have led you forty years in the wilderness. Your clothes have not worn out on you, and your sandals have not worn out on your feet. 6 You have not eaten bread, nor have you drunk wine or similar drink, that you may know that I am the Lord your God.

It says they were not given the ability to understand as a supernatural gift.
But Moses says in v5 and 6 that what happened to them should have taught them God was the Lord their God. But they did not know God even though God did all those wonderful things for them.

Really God reveals things to people, but unless God changes the heart, people just wont get it, wont know God like God wants them to know in the New covenant type of knowing Him, which is an indwelling presence of God and the Son and Holy Spirit their comforter-teacher-guider into all truth making their home in them. In the OT, they could not have Him on the inside like we can have Him on the inside today.

In Jer 32, God says He will

39 then I will give them one heart and one way, that they may fear Me forever, for the good of them and their children after them.

with the promise being they wont depart from Him as before when He had not given them that heart. Departing from God in the OT was a guarantee of reaping the curse of the Law. But if they returned, then the blessings of the Law. However it was God who turned them back to Him by changing their heart.

Still being good and holy the Old Covenant was inferior to the New one which is built on better promises.

So keep on learning, I cant possibly figure out any truth of God unless God inspires that inside of me and neither can anyone else.
 
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Skala

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With the free-will all people have, God will let them do what they want with His truth. .

Where does the Bible say we have free will? This seems like an important part of your argument and worldview, yet it seems you assume it but the Bible never actually says any such thing.

Also, I was not mocking you earlier. I was just showing you that your worldview does not match the Bible.

Paul attributes the reason he's different from unbelievers to grace. You credit yourself.

Red flag.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Where does the Bible say we have free will? This seems like an important part of your argument and worldview, yet it seems you assume it but the Bible never actually says any such thing.
There really isn't anything to assume. People are actually given choices to make, and the consequences of those choices. That demonstrates the freedom of choice, which is what "free will" actually means; not what Calvinists love to depict it as.

Deut 11 and 30 are excellent passages that easily demonstrate man's freedom of choice (free will). Also, Joshua 24:15.

Also, consider this:

John 7:17
“If anyone is willing to do His will, he will know of the teaching, whether it is of God or whether I speak from Myself.

Why would Jesus mention "anyone willing" if such is not possible? To be willing is a choice, just as to not be willing is a choice. By this, Jesus recognized freedom of choice (free will).

otoh, Calvinism assumes that Christ did not die for all of humanity, in spite of all the verses that say otherwise, indicate otherwise, etc.

Even Calvin believed that Christ died for everyone. And Spurgeon.
 
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EmSw

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Hey, our very own Emster is a pretty cool dude after all. Praise God.
Now you're going to have to explain to everyone what "deadly" means.

I am guessing you mean what I believe about 'spiritual death'.

Let me give a passage and let it speak for itself -

Ezekiel 18:20

The soul who sins shall die.

I think this is pretty self-explanatory. Is this verse speaking of physical or spiritual death? I would ask, is the soul a physical or spiritual entity? No one would say the soul is a physical entity. The soul is purely spiritual; therefore, we are speaking of a spiritual death in this verse.
 
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EmSw

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Where does the Bible say we have free will? This seems like an important part of your argument and worldview, yet it seems you assume it but the Bible never actually says any such thing.

Also, I was not mocking you earlier. I was just showing you that your worldview does not match the Bible.

Paul attributes the reason he's different from unbelievers to grace. You credit yourself.

Red flag.

Without free will, man would be as a scarecrow hanging on a stick. He couldn't think for himself, he couldn't do anything for himself, and if God chooses him, he couldn't respond to choose Him. Nor could he love, obey, trust, follow, and understand God, and thus be saved.

Without free will, man would as a man lost in the Cretian maze. He would be as a deaf, dumb, and blind man. In fact, he wouldn't be a man at all; he would be like a stone or a piece of wood. Free will is the faculty given by God which sets him apart from animals.

As far as crediting myself, I will say I can do nothing on my own. I move, speak, breathe, and think as any other man does, that is, only through God. Without crediting God for all I do, then yes, I would take all the credit.

Also, I do good because He has given me the ability and free will to choose to do so.

1 Peter 3 -
13 And who is he who will harm you if you become followers of what is good?
14 But even if you should suffer for righteousness’ sake, you are blessed. “And do not be afraid of their threats, nor be troubled.”
15 But sanctify the Lord God[d] in your hearts, and always be ready to give a defense to everyone who asks you a reason for the hope that is in you, with meekness and fear;
16 having a good conscience, that when they defame you as evildoers, those who revile your good conduct in Christ may be ashamed.
 
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DeaconDean

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There really isn't anything to assume. People are actually given choices to make, and the consequences of those choices. That demonstrates the freedom of choice, which is what "free will" actually means; not what Calvinists love to depict it as.

So, how much "free-will" does a slave have?

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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extraordinary

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I am guessing you mean what I believe about 'spiritual death'.
Let me give a passage and let it speak for itself -
Ezekiel 18:20

The soul who sins shall die.
I think this is pretty self-explanatory. Is this verse speaking of physical or spiritual death? I would ask, is the soul a physical or spiritual entity? No one would say the soul is a physical entity. The soul is purely spiritual; therefore, we are speaking of a spiritual death in this verse.
Geez Louise, I know what you mean, but I wanted you to explain the Truth to everyone else!
.
 
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extraordinary

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Where does the Bible say we have free will?
Red flag.
Yes, Red Flag as to who you are.

Some things never change ... God has always challenged man:
Choose this day (spiritual) life or (spiritual) death!
Choose this day whom you will serve (Me or Satan)!


Yes, it's all about choosing sin or obedience.
Choose this day, and every day.
This is all extremely well hidden by Satan and the churches.

It's all about choosing to repent (leave your sin) or not to repent.
Man's choice determines his eternal future!
.
 
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FreeGrace2

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So, how much "free-will" does a slave have?
The real issue in "free will", or freedom of choice, deals with thought, not actions. And we are saved by what we think, not by what we do, right?

So, any slave is free to think whatever thoughts they desire. Do humans know what others are thinking? No. So humans cannot control what others think. Humans can only control actions.

That is the freedom that is the issue. And God gave everyone the freedom to think their own thoughts. And if one's thoughts involve believing what God promises then they will be saved, because of what God promised.

So, to directly answer the question, a slave has as much free will as they have an imagination.

Would you kindly respond to my point about thoughts, not actions, being the real issue regarding free will? If my view isn't correct, please point out how it isn't, and provide the correct view. Thanks.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Yes, Red Flag as to who you are.

Some things never change ... God has always challenged man:
Choose this day (spiritual) life or (spiritual) death!
Choose this day whom you will serve (Me or Satan)!


Yes, it's all about choosing sin or obedience.
Choose this day, and every day.
This is all extremely well hidden by Satan and the churches.

It's all about choosing to repent (leave your sin) or not to repent.
Man's choice determines his eternal future!
.
Just curious: have you 'left your sin'? Completely, or by how much? Percentage?

If eternal life is based on no sin, where does the Bible teach that man can reach sinless perfection this side of eternity?
 
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DeaconDean

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The real issue in "free will", or freedom of choice, deals with thought, not actions. And we are saved by what we think, not by what we do, right?

So, any slave is free to think whatever thoughts they desire. Do humans know what others are thinking? No. So humans cannot control what others think. Humans can only control actions.

That is the freedom that is the issue. And God gave everyone the freedom to think their own thoughts. And if one's thoughts involve believing what God promises then they will be saved, because of what God promised.

So, to directly answer the question, a slave has as much free will as they have an imagination.

Would you kindly respond to my point about thoughts, not actions, being the real issue regarding free will? If my view isn't correct, please point out how it isn't, and provide the correct view. Thanks.

Ahhh, but will not people be accountable for their thoughts? (cf. Heb. 4:12)

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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EmSw

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Ahhh, but will not people be accountable for their thoughts? (cf. Heb. 4:12)

God Bless

Till all are one.

Absolutely! Free will starts with the intentions of the heart. Therefore, every man, free or slave, has free will. And as much as some would like to take free will away from man, it is a useless effort. I ask, can a slave freely commit adultery with a woman, even though he never touches her? Can a regenerate man also do the same?

Matthew 5:28 but I say to you that everyone who looks at a woman with lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
 
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extraordinary

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Just curious: have you 'left your sin'? Completely, or by how much? Percentage?
If eternal life is based on no sin, where does the Bible teach that man can reach sinless perfection this side of eternity?
Woe is me ... again!
I can't quite remember if you've seen the 1 John passage on repentance 1000 times or 10,000 times!
Oh well.
.
 
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FreeGrace2

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I said this:
Just curious: have you 'left your sin'? Completely, or by how much? Percentage?
If eternal life is based on no sin, where does the Bible teach that man can reach sinless perfection this side of eternity?

Woe is me ... again!
I can't quite remember if you've seen the 1 John passage on repentance 1000 times or 10,000 times!
Oh well.
.
I don't see an answer to my questions?
 
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stan1953

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Just curious: have you 'left your sin'? Completely, or by how much? Percentage?
If eternal life is based on no sin, where does the Bible teach that man can reach sinless perfection this side of eternity?

The operative word here is "IF". So corroborate your position.
 
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FreeGrace2

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I said this:
Just curious: have you 'left your sin'? Completely, or by how much? Percentage?
If eternal life is based on no sin, where does the Bible teach that man can reach sinless perfection this side of eternity?

The operative word here is "IF". So corroborate your position.
My question was to EO, who seems to push the idea that eternal life is based on no sin. I don't think it is, but apparently EO does. So I don't need to corroborate anything. I've noticed that EO hasn't responded to my question yet. Maybe EO doesn't have a good answer or defense for his own position.

If EO doesn't believe what it seems to me he believes, then he hasn't communicated his position very well.
 
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DeaconDean

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Absolutely! Free will starts with the intentions of the heart. Therefore, every man, free or slave, has free will. And as much as some would like to take free will away from man, it is a useless effort. I ask, can a slave freely commit adultery with a woman, even though he never touches her? Can a regenerate man also do the same?

Matthew 5:28 but I say to you that everyone who looks at a woman with lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

To quote Arthur W. Pink:

What is the Will? We answer, the will is the faculty of choice, the immediate cause of all action. Choice necessarily implies the refusal of one thing and the acceptance of another. The positive and the negative must both be present to the mind before there can be any choice. In every act of the will there is a preference—the desiring of one thing rather than another. Where there is no preference, but complete indifference, there is no volition. To will is to choose, and to choose is to decide between two or more alternatives. But there is something which influences the choice; something which determines the decision.

7. God's Sovereignty and the Human Will

So the "will" under direct influence of the heart, is not "free".

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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