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Is This True? - Limited Atonement

FreeGrace2

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The word "called" in Matt 22 is not the same as in Hebrews 9. The same word in Hebrews is, however, the same word in Romans 8:30 "those He called He also justified". So Romans and Hebrews agree with each other, and the parable in Matt 22 is about something else.
Here's the word in Heb 9:15
kaleō

1) to call
1a) to call aloud, utter in a loud voice
1b) to invite
2) to call, i.e. to name, by name
2a) to give a name to
2a1) to receive the name of, receive as a name
2a2) to give some name to one, call his name
2b) to be called, i.e. to bear a name or title (among men)
2c) to salute one by name

Here's the word in Matt 22:14

klētos
Thayer Definition:
1) called, invited (to a banquet)
1a) invited (by God in the proclamation of the Gospel) to obtain eternal salvation in the kingdom through Christ
1b) called to (the discharge of) some office
1b1) divinely selected and appointed

I see that your view tends to hold tightly to the least used use of kletos. But compare 1 and 1a in both words. Just the same.

Speaking of which, why would one claim these 2 words translated 'call' are so different, while all the while vigorously arguing that 'eklegomai' and 'haireomai' are identical words??

Any consistency here?

btw, how does definition 1a) for kletos align with RT? Doesn't RT deny that salvation is offered to anyone? Yet, to be "invited to obtain eternal salvation in the kingdom through Christ" is just such an offer.

And the context of Matt 22 supports this offer of salvation.
 
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Hammster

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Here's the word in Heb 9:15
kaleō

1) to call
1a) to call aloud, utter in a loud voice
1b) to invite
2) to call, i.e. to name, by name
2a) to give a name to
2a1) to receive the name of, receive as a name
2a2) to give some name to one, call his name
2b) to be called, i.e. to bear a name or title (among men)
2c) to salute one by name

Here's the word in Matt 22:14

klētos
Thayer Definition:
1) called, invited (to a banquet)
1a) invited (by God in the proclamation of the Gospel) to obtain eternal salvation in the kingdom through Christ
1b) called to (the discharge of) some office
1b1) divinely selected and appointed

I see that your view tends to hold tightly to the least used use of kletos. But compare 1 and 1a in both words. Just the same.
Okay. So do you believe everyone is called?
Speaking of which, why would one claim these 2 words translated 'call' are so different, while all the while vigorously arguing that 'eklegomai' and 'haireomai' are identical words??
I'm not.

btw, how does definition 1a) for kletos align with RT? Doesn't RT deny that salvation is offered to anyone? Yet, to be "invited to obtain eternal salvation in the kingdom through Christ" is just such an offer.

And the context of Matt 22 supports this offer of salvation.
RT affirms a general call (Matt 22) and an inward call (Romans 8; Hebrews 9).
 
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StephanieSomer

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What is the Lake of Fire which is the second death?

The second death is quite different from the first death. When Adam ate the forbidden fruit, two things happened. His life which he had to begin with was eternal, and it was changed to a mortal life. The second thing which happened was he began the process which would ultimately end his life, through death.
When God told Adam that he would die if he ate the forbidden fruit, He was talking about a physical death which would terminate his current life. Notice that God said nothing to him about a 2nd death. He only mentioned the one death.


Do those who go there have atonement for their sins?

Those who go there have been resurrected. Being resurrected is a direct result of Christ taking the penalty for sin, which is death, physical death of this life.

Are they experiencing the wages or penalty for their sins?

No they are not. They are experiencing the penalty for neglecting to trust Christ for a new life. See John 3:18,19

"He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. This is the judgment, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the Light, for their deeds were evil."

Their judgement is solely on what they have done with Christ.


Why do they go there, is it because they died in their sins?

As was shown in John 3, they rejected the offer of new life. They refused to believe in Christ.

What means this then, the wrath of God abides on unbelievers.
John 3

Yes it does. For neglecting to accept Christ and the new life He offers. The sin which condemns is unbelief. We are told in numerous places that only through faith do we claim the promises of salvation, which I posted originally. No where is it said that the penalty of sins is erased through faith. Only that all the other benefits that Christ provides for us in salvation are gained through faith. Yet, in numerous places it DOES say that Christ paid sin's penalty, which is death.


Romans 6:23
New King James Version (NKJV)


Does that verse have meaning anymore if you say

'The atonement procured only the cancellation of the penalty of sin, death.'
For who was it procured? Can't be universal.

Yes it does. Much! Let me quote it here, in your preferred translation....

"For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord."

Christ paid the penalty, or wages of sin. Death no longer reigns. The 2nd clause does NOT say, "but the gift of God is eternal life." And then stop there. It adds, "in Christ Jesus our Lord." The unregenerate still have eternal life, but not in Jesus Christ. Their eternal life is in the lake of fire.

Let me be very clear. I am NOT saying salvation is universal. I'm saying the removal of sin's penalty, which is death, (PHYSICAL DEATH), IS universal. The second death is not a physical death. It's nothing like the first death.


Think hard about the concepts here about propitiation and atonement and the wages of sin.
What your saying is inconsistent


I have thought very hard on this, for many years. It's the only conclusion that really and truly describes what we know is real, and is not at all inconsistent with Scripture.

Are ALL to be resurrected, or not? Yes, they are. That resurrection is the defeat of sin's penalty, which was won by Christ's punishment on the Cross. None of the other benefits of salvation are provided through the Cross. The new life is through His resurrection. That is very clear in Scripture. And the sanctification which we long for is through the Holy Spirit given to each believer. This is also very clear in Christ's own teachings.
 
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StephanieSomer

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Sure, that's the Arminian line. Christ didn't actually accomplish anything, He made salvation possible.
Scripture takes another view. "For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified."
So yes, the benefits of His atonement actually procured all of salvation's benefits.


I'm not saying Christ didn't accomplish anything. I'm saying he didn't accomplish ALL of it on the cross. His mission was not simply to die. His mission is still ongoing as our High Priest. And there are other things he received of His Father to do between the two. Did not He say,

“Therefore My Father loves Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it again. No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This command I have received from My Father.”

He mentions two very different and opposite charges from His Father. One to die, another to resurrect Himself. We gain different things from each operation. The death was for sin. It paid the penalty, which is death. Not through faith, it just is. A free gift, as it says. To gain anything else, one must join in Christ's resurrection. THAT is through faith, very clearly. And that is only the beginning of salvation.

Your statement of "He made salvation possible", which you seem to ascribe to me, isn't something I believe. The Cross didn't make salvation possible. The Cross was where sin was paid for. Period. Salvation is after that. And it IS for those whom God has foreknown and elected to bring to faith. Faith through which we experience Christ's resurrection in our own being. That resurrection gives more than simply eternal life, it gives us everything which we need for life and Godliness.
 
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StephanieSomer

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For this reason He is the mediator of a new covenant, so that, since a death has taken place for the redemption of the transgressions that were committed under the first covenant, those who have been called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance. (Hebrews 9:15 NASB)

This is the same group that's being sanctified.


You just quoted just what I've been saying and didn't realize it. I bolded some words to point out their importance. Christ's death provided redemption of the transgressions under the 1st covenant. ALL of those transgressions. He did this so that THOSE WHO HAVE BEEN CALLED MAY RECEIVE. The promise is acquired through faith. The redemption is clearly spoken of as a "free gift". It's just that redemption of transgressions is NOT sufficient to gain entrance into the kingdom. All it does is remove the filthy rags we were wearing. That leaves us simply naked. It doesn't clothe us for the marriage feast. The "putting on" of Christ is done through faith, but AFTER redemption has first been completed.
 
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StephanieSomer

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I do realize that the things I'm saying don't agree completely with either Arminianism or Calvinism. And for good reason. It's not possible to dismiss the fact that both views have considerable Scripture to support them. And you can't relegate some Scripture to be more "correct" than any other. It is ALL God's Word. Truth is truth and never wavers. It cannot be shown to be not quite complete in some circumstances. It is not relative. It HAS to be true in each and every situation, and in light of each and every Scriptural teaching.

Both views are weak in some point in their ability to stand under each and every Scripture verse. However, they do both describe certain elements of the full Truth.

The explanation I've given does have elements of each view contained therein, and does not have any trouble with any Scripture that I've tried to tear it down with. And it DOES explain certain facts which we do know are, and will be, in light of what has been.
 
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Hammster

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You just quoted just what I've been saying and didn't realize it. I bolded some words to point out their importance. Christ's death provided redemption of the transgressions under the 1st covenant. ALL of those transgressions. He did this so that THOSE WHO HAVE BEEN CALLED MAY RECEIVE. The promise is acquired through faith. The redemption is clearly spoken of as a "free gift". It's just that redemption of transgressions is NOT sufficient to gain entrance into the kingdom. All it does is remove the filthy rags we were wearing. That leaves us simply naked. It doesn't clothe us for the marriage feast. The "putting on" of Christ is done through faith, but AFTER redemption has first been completed.

You sure had to add a lot to that verse to get where you did. And you didn't even address the emboldened part that you said was important.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Okay. So do you believe everyone is called?
The Bible says many are called, but few are chosen.

Surely, you are. You've emphasized there is a difference between 'kletos' and 'kaleo', yet you ignore the difference between choice and election.

I'll boil it down for extreme simplicity: an election is a B[special[/B] chooosing. Not all, in fact, very few choices are special.
 
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Hammster

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The Bible says many are called, but few are chosen.


Surely, you are. You've emphasized there is a difference between 'kletos' and 'kaleo', yet you ignore the difference between choice and election.

I'll boil it down for extreme simplicity: an election is a B[special[/B] chooosing. Not all, in fact, very few choices are special.

Just to be sure I understand you, you think Christ died for everyone, but that God doesn't call everyone?
 
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Hammster

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No, I don't think that.

That's what is sure looks like. Maybe you could explain, then, who gets called. Everyone? Some? Many (what do you think that means)?
 
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FreeGrace2

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That's what is sure looks like. Maybe you could explain, then, who gets called. Everyone? Some? Many (what do you think that means)?
I've been explaining since I've been on CF. Jesus says it best: when I am lifted up, I will draw all men to Myself.

Yes, He didn't use either "call" word. So what? The offer of salvation IS for all.

Paul said he offers the gospel without charge in 1 Cor 9:18. So salvation (the gospel message) IS an offer. And Paul offered it to everyone.
 
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Hammster

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I've been explaining since I've been on CF. Jesus says it best: when I am lifted up, I will draw all men to Myself.

Yes, He didn't use either "call" word. So what? The offer of salvation IS for all.

Paul said he offers the gospel without charge in 1 Cor 9:18. So salvation (the gospel message) IS an offer. And Paul offered it to everyone.

I'm not sure how you think that addresses anything I asked. The bible talks about men being called. You are avoiding the issue presented. Maybe you could explain, then, who gets called. Everyone? Some? Many (what do you think that means)?
 
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stenerson

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I'm not saying Christ didn't accomplish anything. I'm saying he didn't accomplish ALL of it on the cross. His mission was not simply to die. His mission is still ongoing as our High Priest. And there are other things he received of His Father to do between the two. Did not He say,

Sure, but all these benefits were secured by His earthly ministry. Which is why that text is so powerful and interesting. He is calling, justifying, sanctifying, perfecting His saints now in real time. But we are allowed to see it from God's perspective "For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified."
It's basically saying that it's a done deal because of what that one sacrifice accomplished.
It's similar to our being seated in Heavenly places in Christ Jesus.
 
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catholichomeschooler

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Limited Atonement: Christ’s redeeming work was intended to save the elect only and actually secured salvation for them. His death was a substitutionary endurance of the penalty of sin in the place of certain specified sinners.

According to God’s Word people perish if they refuse to believe the truth of gospel message. For the Calvinist then, the non-elect should not perish because they believe the truth that Jesus didn’t die for them.

2 Thessalonians 2:10
They perish because they refused to love the truth and so be saved.

Those who teach limited atonement would say a person goes to hell because he believes the truth that Jesus did not die for him. According to Calvinism, he is correct for Christ did not die for his salvation. So then, why would God condemn this man for rejecting the Savior, if Christ did nothing to save him? And why would we try to persuade him otherwise? It would be foolish of us to attempt to do so.

When the gospel is preached, what are lost sinners urged to believe? According to Calvinism, the elect are urged to believe a message they are incapable of rejecting. The non-elect however, are urged to believe a message that is not true for them. They are told that Jesus died for their sins, but according to Calvinism this is not true, if they were not one of the elect. He is actually urged to believe a lie (for him). They are invited to believe this lie, commanded to believe it, and threatened with eternal condemnation if they do not believe it, yet Calvinism says they cannot believe it.

The fact is, the gospel does not urge sinners to believe a lie. Sinners do not perish for believing a lie but for rejecting God’s truth. The gospel compels them to believe the truth that Christ died for the sins of the world (John 1:29). He died for their sins. It is their rejection of this wonderful Truth that condemns them.

The gospel is good news for everyone all the time and that’s the truth!


I agree with you.

God wants all men to be saved. Those who are not saved have no one to blame but themselves.

Now is the judgment of this world; now the ruler of this world will be driven out. And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.
John 12:31-32


For since death came through a human being, the resurrection of the dead has also come through a human being; for as all die in Adam, so all will be made alive in Christ.
1Cor. 15:21-22



Therefore just as one man’s trespass led to condemnation for all, so one man’s act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all. Rom. 5:18
For God has imprisoned all in disobedience so that he may be merciful to all.
Rom 11:32


My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; and he is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.
1 John 2:1-2


The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him and declared, “Here is the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!”
John 1:29
 
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catholichomeschooler

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Sure, but all these benefits were secured by His earthly ministry. Which is why that text is so powerful and interesting. He is calling, justifying, sanctifying, perfecting His saints now in real time. But we are allowed to see it from God's perspective "For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified."
It's basically saying that it's a done deal because of what that one sacrifice accomplished.
It's similar to our being seated in Heavenly places in Christ Jesus.

We must cooperate with God's free gift of grace.

Only those who endure will be saved.

A man reaps what he sows.
 
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FreeGrace2

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I'm not sure how you think that addresses anything I asked.
And I'm not sure why you don't think so.

The bible talks about men being called. You are avoiding the issue presented. Maybe you could explain, then, who gets called. Everyone? Some? Many (what do you think that means)?
This is what I said, which directly addresses your question and answers it.

The offer of salvation IS for all.

Paul said he offers the gospel without charge in 1 Cor 9:18. So salvation (the gospel message) IS an offer. And Paul offered it to everyone.
 
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Hammster

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And I'm not sure why you don't think so.


This is what I said, which directly addresses your question and answers it.

The offer of salvation IS for all.

Paul said he offers the gospel without charge in 1 Cor 9:18. So salvation (the gospel message) IS an offer. And Paul offered it to everyone.

Since I am talking about calling, I will assume by your statement that you think all men are called.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Since I am talking about calling, I will assume by your statement that you think all men are called.
Nothing to assume here. I proved that the Bible says so. If that isn't true, please take my points and refute them from Scripture.
 
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Hammster

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Nothing to assume here. I proved that the Bible says so. If that isn't true, please take my points and refute them from Scripture.

So do you equate, then, the gospel offer with calling?
 
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