By comparing both sides and figuring out which one both makes more sense and which one has a better grasp on reality.
Their view on the transmission and "corruption" of Scripture is incorrect in places, their theology is slightly liberal, two different statements. The Vulgate doesn't really factor into their view on the transmission of Scripture. A modern position on the Vulgate and its text type (Western) is that it varies so much from both the Byzantine and Alexandrian types this is largely due to the fact that it was continually produced while both of the other main branches were either snuffed out in the case of the Alexandrian, or severely confined in audience/copying in the case of the Byzantine, this is due to the rise of Islam in the East.
As to what data W&H actually used that differs from what the KJV translators (also Anglican and slightly liberal) had was access to Vaticanus, Sinaiticus and I think they had another Great Codex, but it was by the general consensus and antiquity of those Codices that they formulated their theory and produced their text.
Now you're just putting words into my mouth, and not very well I might add, are you even trying to represent what I'm saying in any reasonable fashion? Textual Criticism from Erasmus through to Nestle and Aland, including that done by Scrivner has been a largely liberal leaning preoccupation as have some translations. "false scripture" and "liberal agenda" are loaded terms for what is being discussed here, considering the nature and difficulties of the Science/Art of textual criticism you cannot use these terms and have valid points to make. We do not know the theological positions of those who created the data that we need to sift through and so postulations of such a nature (linking the Alexandrian text-type to Origen because they are both associated with Alexandria for example) are preposterous and unfounded.
Do you think there is any occult background in Westcott and Hort?
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