Biblical Definition of adultery

sunlover1

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What is the strict Biblical definition of adultery, when marriage is not defined in the Bible?
Trying to understand the spirit behind the question here.
If you wonder how to know what constitutes adultery so you can
get cut loose from someone, or even wondering if you've crossed
that line..

Jesus said that even to lust after a woman is adultery in your heart
so, imo, let God Himself guide you.
 
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N

Nanopants

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^^Yes but with the same breath He also commanded that we dismember ourselves, and in the case that we might be tempted to say that was intended to be taken as metaphor, there is no indication that it should be read any differently than the statement on lust.

Let's also not forget that He had just stated "blessed are the merciful for they shall obtain mercy," if in case we're tempted to think He had laid down a rather unmerciful command in contradiction to Himself.
 
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sunlover1

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To my understanding, adultery is scripturally defined as either:

* a married woman engaging in relations with any other person, or
* a man (married or not) engaging in relations with or lusting for a married woman.
You didn't mean to imply that these can't be gender reversed, right?
Example, *a married man engaging in ...
 
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PreachersWife2004

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To my understanding, adultery is scripturally defined as either:

* a married woman engaging in relations with any other person, or
* a man (married or not) engaging in relations with or lusting for a married woman.

so if a woman is single she can have sex with whomever she wants, and if it's a guy she has sex with he's committing adultery?
 
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ananda

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so if a woman is single she can have sex with whomever she wants, and if it's a guy she has sex with he's committing adultery?
The first time a single woman has voluntary sex, she is thereafter essentially automatically joined/betrothed/married to that man.
 
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childofdust

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The strictly legal definition of adultery (or נאף) in the biblical texts refers to the theft and/or disruption of a married man's exclusive right to sexual intercourse with his wife.

Notice that I said "a married man's exclusive right" and not a "married woman's." The husband (literally the "possessor" in Hebrew) owns his wife and has exclusive sexual rights with her. She, however, does not have exclusive sexual rights with him because she is the one possessed, not the possessor.

Strictly speaking from a biblical perspective, it is not possible for a married man to commit adultery by engaging in sexual intercourse with an unmarried woman because an unmarried woman has no husband against whom he is depriving exclusive sexual rights. He may need to pay a bride-price or make amends to the family for causing their daughter to be less valuable to a future suitor, but he has not committed adultery. This is why it is not adultery in the bible for a married man to engage in sex with concubines, or for a king to have a harem, or for a man to have multiple wives - because in none of those cases is he denying or breaking his exclusive right to sexual activity (or any other husband's).

It is, however, possible, for a married woman to commit adultery if she engages in sexual intercourse with either a married or unmarried man because she has broken her husband's exclusive right to sexual intercourse with her.

So also, an unmarried man who engages in sexual intercourse with a married woman commits adultery because he has broken her husband's exclusive right to sexual intercourse with her.

If an unmarried man engages in sexual intercourse with an unmarried woman, neither can commit adultery because there is no husband against whom exclusive sexual rights are being denied.
 
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ananda

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Personally, I find the biblical definition of adultery to be grotesque. I prefer Christ's.
I see Messiah's definition of adultery to be the same as the definition given in the Law.

I also instead see the marriage commandments as the earthly reality meant to be a wonderful reflection of His eternal plan, where He, as the one eternal, perfect, spiritual Husband invites all who will to come join Him in marriage, as one of His wives, to partake of the fruits of His spiritual House.
 
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PreachersWife2004

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The first time a single woman has voluntary sex, she is thereafter essentially automatically joined/betrothed/married to that man.

Except we know that's not how it works, at least not while looking at the New Testament.

Do you put much stock in the NT?
 
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ananda

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Except we know that's not how it works, at least not while looking at the New Testament.

Do you put much stock in the NT?
I share ~73% of your NT :)

Why is it "not how it works" according to the NT?

If one voluntarily partakes of the spiritual blessings of Messiah, calls upon His Name, and claims His fruit, then is that man or woman not intending to become joined to Him?
 
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childofdust

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You didn't mean to imply that these can't be gender reversed, right?
Example, *a married man engaging in ...

Biblically speaking, adultery is based on the violation of a husband's exclusive sexual rights with his wife. Nothing more, nothing less. It can't be reversed because a wife does not have exclusive sexual rights with her husband.
 
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childofdust

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so if a woman is single she can have sex with whomever she wants, and if it's a guy she has sex with he's committing adultery?

Strictly speaking biblically, a single woman can have sex with either a married or unmarried man - or, reverse that - a married or unmarried man can have sex with a single woman - without committing adultery because adultery only happens when a husband's exclusive sexual rights to his wife are broken. So also, a male can be married to 100 women, have sex with them all, then go out and have sex with 100 unmarried women, and not commit adultery. But if he has sex with 1 woman married to someone else, he commits adultery.
 
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