- Jun 10, 2010
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I have, by my count, three times now given you a hypothetical context wherein Paul could have said "Christ died for our sins" in a particularly redemptive sense to unbelievers. All it would take is for Paul to have used one exclusive pronoun, when he spoke on behalf of him and the church together as "we." I see no reason to accept that your hypothetical context as necessary while you conversely reject my hypothetical context out of hand.
If it was the case, as you assert, that when Paul originally preached to the unbelieving Corinthians he had actually told them that Christ had died for his (Paul's) and the other members of the church's sins, and not necessarily for their (unbelieving Corinthians) sins, then in the letter, Paul is reminding them of this. This would, presumably, apply to the resurrection as well. So the gospel is, essentially, that Christ's death and resurrection are only for believers. It isn't for those that God determined it would not be for.
Your problem is that Paul fails to make this point explicitly. His language in 1 Corinthians 15 is not consistent with such a gospel.
3For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures,
Shouldn't Paul rather have said something like this:
3For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance: that Christ died for believers sins according to the Scriptures, 4that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day for believers only, according to the Scriptures,
That line of argumentation is as clear as mud. I know you can't make it any clearer, but that's because your argument is indefensible, not because you've already made it sufficiently clear.
Say I give a lecture to a room full of Americans and Japanese about the Battle of Midway. Years later one of the Americans and I meet again, and he vaguely recalls this lecture, but doesn't remember who won. I want to refresh his memory, so I say, "This is what I taught, that we won." There is no grammatical or morphological or syntactical or metasyntactical justification for either taking that as a direct quote or for insisting that the antecedent of "we" includes anyone more than the first and second person - myself and the American student.
So Paul made it clear beyond doubt that under no circumstances is anyone to preach the gospel to unbelievers and give them the impression that Christ died and rose from the dead for them necessarily? He established this did he? So, when he finally did say in his letter, 'this is what we preach', nobody was in any way confused about what 'this' referred to?
As I have stated, repeatedly, I don't have a problem if the Bible includes unbelievers under Christ's death, as that only signifies there is an additional, non-atoning universality within Christ's death. It does not make universal the redemption which is inherent in reconciliation with the father which is inherent in the payment for sins which is effected by the death of Christ.
So it would signify an additional, non-atoning universality within Christ's death, but it doesn't actually benefit the reprobates one iota?
Why are you bothering to bring it up?
But moreover, you need to go back and read and at least attempt to interact with what I've written on second person clusivity. You've demanded on several occasions that I explain why Paul isn't guarding against a certain misunderstanding, but I have already established that the human brain is unable to make that misunderstanding, because second person clusivity is too complicated a concept for the language center to process when handling a pronoun. In other words, the concept "not just me, not just you, but them also" needs to be present in a text for reasons beyond pronoun choice. It's not. It's fairly apparent that the reason you see it in this text is that you introduced it to this text because of your precommitment to general atonement.
You have baffled me again.
Also consider, what I'm "vehemently defending against" is the idea that I Cor 15 has general atonement undertones, so it would be silly for me to expect Paul to explicitly preclude general atonement in this passage, since he's said nothing which would indicate it except to those who are already precommitted to it.
So preachers are just supposed to extrapolate and realise that Paul did not mean that what he says directly to the believing Corinthians is, under any circumstances, to be repeated to unbelievers?
Really?
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