If so what was your answer?What did the Holy Spirit reveal to you?
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3. The Bible – The KJV is the only Bible one should use as a Christian – it (KJV 1611) is inerrant above and beyond the original translations in the original languages of Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic. Anyone who believes otherwise is decieved.
In your little, extra-message, you apparently quote Jesus as saying
"look at the height of the sky, my love is higher. Look at the depth of the ocean, my love is deeper that that. Look at the stars, the sun, and the moon, my love outshines them. Look at the universe in all its vastness. My love encompasses and fills it, and you are the focal point of it all."
Could you please tell me what verse that is.
I have not prayed over this, but it has been my experience on the forums, that the KJVO crowd feels that God not only has perserved His word, but that the KJV is better than the originals.
Here is a classic example that has come up in the Fundamentalist area:
While looking for the definition of "ultra-Fundamentalist" I stumbled upon this from the KJV Onlyists:
Sadly, there is nothing you can say or show to prove otherwise.
God Bless
TIll all are one.
What is the difference between test and tempt in those verses? Both are the same process. You can tempt in the testing process.
This debate confuses me. I hear some people say that the KJV is the only one that should be used because it's the original or whatever, but wasn't the KJV just the original translation?
It seems to me that if you're so fixated on finding the original you should read the stone tablets written in Hebrew (or whatever they used to translate from, I don't really know much in this area). As to the question, I myself use the KJV, but I don't think there is anything wrong using the NIV or any other translation as long as they are accurate.
Original *English translation
It's not even the original English translation;
John Wycliffe (and possibly also Nicholas Hereford) translated the whole of the Bible into English for the first time in the 1380s
Then there was Tyndale's (~1523), Coverdale's (1535), Matthew's (1537), The Great (1538 Government Propaganda I), Taverner (1539), The Geneva (1560), The Bishop's (1572 Government Propaganda II) and the Douay-Rheims (1610 Catholic Propaganda I) all preceded the King James Version (1611 Government Propaganda III)
I bet I could find bad translations and contradictions in any Bible.
Maybe I should have included the phrase "mass produced"![]()
Please do. I'd love to see anything quite as stark as those two KJV verses. I havent found any yet from my NIV except the following
Deuteronomy 31:6
Be strong and courageous. Do not be afraid or terrified because of them, for the Lord your God goes with you; he will never leave you nor forsake you.”
2 Kings 21:14
I will forsake the remnant of my inheritance and give them into the hands of enemies. They will be looted and plundered by all their enemies;
2 Chronicles 24:20
Then the Spirit of God came on Zechariah son of Jehoiada the priest. He stood before the people and said, “This is what God says: ‘Why do you disobey the Lord’s commands? You will not prosper. Because you have forsaken the Lord, he has forsaken you.’”
I guess it could be argued that the context of the audience in question is different, and therefore no contradiction exists...at least that's what I tell myself.
My [old] thread on the topic:
http://www.christianforums.com/t7616332/