Before the perfect man Adam rebelled in the Garden of Eden by intentionally eating of the fruit from the "tree of knowledge of good and bad" (Gen 3:6), what did God prescribe as his punishment ? Genesis 2:17 says that "as for the tree of the knowledge of good and bad you must not eat from it, for in the day you eat from it you will positively die.
Following Adam's intentional act of disobedience, what did Jehovah God now say ? That he would now burn forever in a "hellfire" ? At Genesis 3:19, God tells Adam (and Eve): "In the sweat of your face you will eat bread until you return to the ground, for out of it you were taken. For dust you are and to dust you will return. Adam did not exist before his creation from the "dust" or ground. Hence, upon his death, he would not be sent to a "hellfire", but return to the same state of non-existence.
At Ecclesiastes 9:5, king Solomon was inspired to write: "For the living are conscious that they will die; but as for the dead, they are conscious of nothing at all, neither do they anymore have wages, because the remembrance of them has been forgotten." Furthermore, Psalms 115:17 says that "the dead themselves do not praise Jah, nor do any going down into silence." How can the dead be tormented since they are "conscious of nothing at all " and go "down into silence" ?
Because of Jesus association of fire with the Greek word Gehenna, which the King James Bible has rendered as both "hell" and "hellfire", this leaves the wrong impression that bad people go to "hell" to be tormented by fire. Jesus was not teaching this, but rather was telling his audience that anyone who receives the judgment of Gehenna from Jehovah God are dead forever, with no hope of a resurrection or a "standing up " to life again.("resurrection", Greek a·na´sta·sis, meaning "raising up; standing up")
The churches have promoted the belief in a "hellfire", creating a morbid fear of God rather than love. And interestingly, these also teach that Satan is the one "running" it. A careful examination notes a serious flaw in this belief, for Satan is God's archenemy. If God sends people to a fiery hell to be tormented by the Devil, would that not imply a level of cooperation between God and Satan ?
To illustrate, let's say a man has a son, but this son becomes rebellious, doing a lot of bad things. Though the father tried to provide loving correction, the son remains bad. The father now feels that he has to punish him. But what if the father found out that an evil man had been influencing his son to do evil things, would the father now turn to evil man to ask him to punish his son ?
Then, does it make sense that God would ask Satan the Devil - the very one who influences wicked people - to punish these same people ? For that matter, if God wanted the wicked to be punished, why would the Devil - God's archenemy - comply with God's wishes and torment them ?
Thus, the Bible says that wicked people are not tormented but are "cut off ", for Psalms 37:9 says: "For evildoers themselves will be cut off ("cut off ", Hebrew karath), but those hoping in Jehovah are the ones that will possess the earth."