Here we go again.
King James English, which some call a Heavenly language.
'King James English' is not a recognised variant of English. If you intend to refer to the language used in the King James Bible, which in turn relies very much on the language of the Tyndale Bible then that would be Modern English. (What we have now is New, not Modern.)
Therefore, in your view, which you rightly say you are entitled to hold, the Modern English of the King James Bible is a heavenly variant of language, used in heaven, used in the Archetypal Bible in Heaven, and used by Adam in the Garden of Eden.
I accept that you can believe this if you want to. However, I am intrigued as to
why you believe it. If you regard the KJV as a heavenly book, then where in that heavenly book can we find the justification for saying that Adam spoke Modern English? Remember, if it is not in the KJV, then there is no need for anyone to believe it. So where exactly is this written?
Also, the Word that was with God from the beginning was a 'he' and took flesh. Do you really think this denotes the Bible, or could it denote Christ himself, do you think? After all, the Nicene Creed tells us that Christ was in the beginning with God, and does not say that the Bible was. Could it be that you are a little muddled on this one, or do you think that Nicene is muddled?