SithDoughnut
The Agnostic, Ignostic, Apatheistic Atheist
Can you explain what the importance is of the way they ‘evolved’ is?
What do you mean? You asked the question and I answered it.
Islam is a religion and Christianity is a relationship.
This is not a trite comment, but there is a very crucial difference between Christianity and all other religions and belief systems.
If this was true, there would be no Bible, no sin, no commandments, no church, no rules or restrictions and no ceremonies or festivals. Christianity is not simply a relationship, it is a religion. You can say that it is a religion founded upon a relationship but to say that it is not a religion is to ignore most of Christianity.
To lump Christianity in with all other faiths and religions is convenient...but that's about it!
You're arbitrarily assigning a different status to Christianity without any reason to do so. Have you noticed that you're telling me I'm incorrectly lumping in Christianity with other religions, but you're doing exactly the same thing to all non-Christian faiths?
Isaiah is from the Old Testament, and therefore before Jesus. There are plenty of other references to Jesus in the old Testament.
The Jews disagree, and their arguments look just as strong as yours from where I'm standing.
But anyway, what is the relevance of your point that “All of this came after Jesus.”?
The concept of what Christianity is evolved from Judaism. It's not independent.
Ok, but is there less or more historical evidence to support the claims Jesus made, than there is for any other historical figure?
Depends on which historical figure. Pretty much all we know about Jesus comes from accounts written by people who never met him, so they're not all that reliable, especially when it was the church who decided exactly what would become canon and what would not, instead of allowing all accounts into the Bible. That bias results in the Bible being a very poor historical account.
Is that a correct assumption to make?
No, the correct assumption is to not make one. I do not know who Jesus truly was, whether he existed, or what he actually did or said, and until independent evidence comes along (for example, accounts that are unrelated to Christians or the Bible), I'm sticking with the position that I have no conclusion to make yet.
The Bible is supported by more manuscript evidence than any other book from the ancient world. There are in excess of 24,000 extant Greek manuscripts, codex’s and fragments of the Old and New Testament. These have been attested more thoroughly than any other work from the ancient world, and the New Testament alone has approx.. 5300 manuscripts
For example:
-Plato/ written 427-347BC/ earliest fragment AD 900 / 7 Manuscripts
-Tacitus/ written AD100/ earliest fragment AD1100/ 20 Manuscripts
-New Testament / written AD40-100/ earliest fragment AD125/ 5,300 Manuscripts
So the New Testament was written by a single author?
The writings of the roman historian Tacitus is famous for his ‘Annuals’ on Christ (Christus) which were written in AD116, and are particularly noted as being an accurate non-Biblical reference to the death of Christ as described in the 4 Gospels.
The problem with these claims is that they assume that historical references justify all the extraordinary events in the Bible. Christianity is not based upon the existence of Jesus, but what he did. This is where the accounts get more dubious and hard to draw conclusive evidence from.
So I believe it is very clear that there is an overwhelming amount of evidence both from the attesting of the manuscripts themselves, AND from non-Biblical evidence to consider it arguably the most accurate and comprehensive collection of books from the ancient world...
Your only truly independent source you listed was Tacitus, who merely confirms the existence and death of a man named Jesus. The Dead Sea Scrolls are the Old Testament equivalent of the non-canonical gospels, and as such are not truly independent in themselves. Nor do they justify the events claimed in the Old Testament (they are essentially the Old Testament plus extra documents - you can't use a different copy of the OT as evidence).
But which one? The first one from AD325 or the second one from AD381?
Please clarify your point regarding this, so that I can answer it.
Both. They essentially re-defined Christianity and subsequent interpretations of the Bible, independently of what the Bible actually said. They were attempts to say "Ignore your interpretation, this is what we say is true". Subsequent interpretations and translations of the Bible have often been based on whether they fit the creed created by a group of fallible men.
I want to clarify my position before I end up defending a position that I do not hold. I am not saying that the Bible is wrong (although we can say that for certain parts of it). I'm saying that while we can't say that the Bible is wrong, nor do we have the evidence to say that it is right. When I argue against your posts, I'm not arguing against the Bible, but claims based upon it. As much as the argument is made that Christianity is a relationship and nothing more, it is in fact a religion based upon its followers and the claims they make. This is the Christianity that I think has no conclusive evidence or logical necessity.
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